In re. the recent autopsy report of an 86 yo man who died 4 weeks post single dose of Pfizer vaccine, here's a quick take on what might have happened.
sciencedirect.com/science/articl…
The initial symptom was acute diarrhea. Following invasive examination, ischemic colitis was determined to be the cause. The patient did not respond to antibiotic treatment.
SARS2 PCR was negative.
The elevated creatinine shown above is consistent with the intestinal infection, although there are numerous other causes such as a kidney problem.
Systolic blood pressure rose from 130 to 187, which can happen due to arterial constriction in response to an bleeding injury.
Most telling is the very low hemoglobin, which was never a part of this patient's medical history. This would imply a sudden disregulation of red blood cell generation. A concomitant rise in "free iron" is likely, which can lead to acute infections.
The patient tested positive for SARS2 on day 25, whereas his roommate was positive on day 24. He died within two days.
Autopsy revealed acute pneumonia with bacterial abscesses AND an enlarged heart associated with ischemic myocarditis.
The report found "viral genome" everywhere except in the the liver and the olfactory bulb. Sound strange?
The cause of death is acute pneumonia of bacterial origin and renal failure.
And they conclude that the one dose of the Pfizer vaccine was sufficient to create the appropriate spike protein IgG's, but not enough to confer "sterile immunity." The last term means not enough to stop an infection when challenged by the real virus.
IDK if I buy that, do you?
Regardless, it has nothing to do with the cause of the diseases that led to his demise.
There were at least three separate ischemic events:
Colon, lungs, and heart,
Which were preceded by falling hemoglobin. Free iron?
Wonder what caused those.
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