Thread by @InfraDmitriy

No, the Molotov-Ribbentrop Pact was not an 'alliance', contrary to what liberals claim

A thread🧵

The Molotov-Ribbentrop pact was an non-aggression agreement signed between the USSR & Germany in late August 1939.

It has been used as a 'gotcha' event by illiterate anti-communists in order to disgustingly downplay the MASSIVE sacrifice made by the USSR to defeat Nazism.

Of course, the burden of proof relies on the people who claim that an alliance existed.

Let us examine these 'points of proof' & examine the events that culminated into these points

1. Molotov-Ribbentrop Pact (henceforth MR)

This agreement was a direct result of the failure to create 'collective security' in Europe

The USSR had tried this and failed due to the irrational anti-communism of Poland & the unwillingness of the UK & France to make this a reality

Negotiations in August 12 1939 had continued between between British Admiral Drax, French General Doumec, and Soviet Marshal Voroshilov

Drax however admitted he only had permission to negotiate, and not sign any agreements.

hrono.info/dokum/193_dok/…

Naturally, the problem of how Soviet troops could fight German forces came up in a discussion on August 14th



This would have to be achieved through the entrance of Soviet troops through Poland, which France agreed was crucial to any security agreement. hrono.info/dokum/193_dok/…

But Poland denied any military agreements with the USSR in a telegram from Foreign Minister Josef Beck to Polish Ambassador to France Lukasiewicz

hrono.info/dokum/193_dok/…

As Voroshilov put it, these conditions made military collaboration impossible.

hrono.ru/dokum/193_dok/…

With the possibility of collective security gone, the USSR turned to Germany to desperately buy time for itself.

Thus, the non-aggression agreement was concluded, with a 'secret additional protocol' that anti-communists claim 'divided Europe'

This is false, as seen below:

There is evidence that the Spheres of Influence did not refer to any partition or invasion, according to General Franz Halder's diaries.

He says that Hitler was considering independence for Western Ukraine, although the USSR's 'spheres of influence' fell in Western Ukraine.

So, this provides evidence that the Secret Protocol was not about 'invading' nor 'annexing' anyone, in this case, Poland.

It also provides evidence that Hitler was prepared to negotiate over Western Ukraine with the Poles, and not the USSR.

In further entries, Halder repeats that the Germans are discussing the formation of an independent Western Ukraine

Additionally, Halder suggests that the USSR expected a negotiated settlement would leave a 'rump' Poland

This provides substantial evidence that the 'Spheres of Influence' was not abut the 'invasion' nor 'annexation' of any territory.

The secret protocols merely mean that Germany is not allowed to extend itself beyond a certain LINE in Poland

Next, on Poland itself:

We now have substantial evidence that Polish government officials had been fleeing to Romania therefore abdicating government responsibility on the 14th, which culminated on the 16th-18th around the time of Soviet 'invasion' of Poland

A legal prerequisite for a state to exist is if they have a government (according to Montevideo)

Poland (or what remained of it) had NO government. As such, Poland no longer existed.

So how could the USSR invade Poland, if Poland NO LONGER existed?

Since Romania was a neutral nation, the government fleeing to Romania was therefore made 'interned'

It was unable to act as a government, OR pass through to a country at war with Germany, like France.

If Romania allowed this, it wouldve violated their own sovereignty.

We know this is true, because both the Polish President and the Romanian government admitted that Poland no longer existed.

This was because when Moscicki tried to 'resign' on the 30th, Romania faked a story about Moscicki resigning on the 15th, before the Polish state collapsed

On another point:

Everyone accepted the USSR's claim of neutrality when it intervened in former Poland

One can't claim to be neutral while acting as a belligerent power.

The LoN also accepted this, since the Covenant required members to take sanctions to those resorting to war

..even though, nobody took sanctions against the USSR when it intervened in Poland.

However, the League voted to expel the USSR for its actions in Finland later that year.

So, why did the USSR intervene in Eastern Poland?

Since Poland ceased to exist, the 'Secret protocols' were no longer valid, since it assumed that a 'Poland' existed.

This means that the Germans could have felt free to occupy ALL of Poland up to the Soviet border, or form pro-Nazi states.

The USSR could not permit that.

Very simply put:

The USSR did NOT invade Poland, or was ever 'allied' with Germany through the M-R Pact.