The argument for divine simplicity from divine naming:
1. Scripture applies a number of names, titles, and descriptions to God. Among these, pride of place goes to "YHWH" and "Elohim" in the OT.
2. "Elohim" is a class term like "man." In ordinary usage, class terms apply to many different things that hold something in common: Adam is a man. Abraham is a man. And so forth.
3. In accordance with this ordinary usage, the OT applies the term "Elohim" not only to YHWH but also to other so-called gods, "the gods of the peoples."
4. "YHWH," on the other hand, is a proper name like "Abraham." In ordinary usage, proper names pick out individual members of a class, distinguishing them from other members of a class.
5. Here's where ordinary rules of usage break down. The OT affirms that YHWH is "the Elohim" (Deut 4:35). This has two implications for our understanding of both "YHWH" as a proper name and "Elohim" as a class term.
6. The singular identity that the proper name "YHWH" picks out is no ordinary singularity. YHWH is not a member of a larger class. YHWH is "one" in a very peculiar sense (Deut 6:4).
7. Moreover, "Elohim" is not a class term that, strictly speaking, admits many members. "You [YHWH] alone are God" (Ps 86:10). The gods of the nations are, in fact, "nothing" (Isa 41:24).
8. What does this have to do with divine simplicity? The doctrine of divine simplicity denies "composition" in God. Among other facets of the doctrine, this includes the denial that God is a composite of individual and nature, that God is *this* version of *that* thing.
9. This facet of the doctrine of divine simplicity seems to be one implication of OT patterns of divine naming which identify YHWH exclusively with Elohim. The name "YHWH Elohim" is the OT's eloquent testimony to the simplicity of God. YHWH alone *is* Elohim, there is no other.
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Augustine interprets John’s references to the Son “seeing” or “hearing” the Father as ways of describing what theologians call the Son’s “passive generation” (i.e., his being eternally begotten of the Father).
I used to regard that interpretation as clever, but probably wrong.
I am now inclined to think that this is a very attentive and probably correct interpretation.
Here are a few reasons why.
1. John regularly describes the Son’s (preincarnate) *relation* to the Father with these terms, and he regularly describes the Spirit’s relation to the Son in similar terms.
Many culturally adjacent reasons for John to call Jesus “the Word.” Platonism. Hellenistic Judaism. Etc.
Without discounting those, best suggestion remains Isaiah 55:11: the Word goes out from God, returns to God, after having accomplished the purpose for which God sent him.
“Isaiah … saw his glory and spoke of him” (Jn 12:41)
And don’t even get me started on how the Word, by descending like rain, gives seed to the sower and bread to the eater.
The Word eternally turned toward the Father in loving contemplation (Jn 1:1-2) returns to the Father with us in tow as redeemed siblings: “I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God” (Jn 20:17).
First and last uses of *pros ton theon* in John’s Gospel.
True neighbor love is doing whatever it takes to share with them the thing you love the most. What does the Son love the most? The Father, being the Son of the Father (see Jn 17:24).
True neighbor love is motivated by something higher than neighbor love.
John’s great contribution is his teaching that you can’t fully appreciate God’s love for the world unless you appreciate God’s love for God. And that we can’t truly participate in God’s love for the world unless we are filled with God’s love for God.
An outline of moral theology based on Titus 2:11-14
1. The grace that *saves* also *trains*. But the order here matters: God trains those he saves; he doesn’t save those he trains.
2. Grace trains us to deny vice and to cultivate virtue. This is the form that the Christian life takes between its inauguration by grace and its consummation in glory.
3. The life that grace trains us to cultivate may be summarized under three virtues, three forms of free and excellent human action: piety, justice, and moderation.
That God is impassible means at least three things.
1. God is the uncaused cause of all that exists, the unmoved mover of all that happens. From him and through him and to him are all things.
2. God has no appetite to acquire anything (Maximus the Confessor). He is all-sufficient in and of himself, the blessed and only Sovereign. God does not receive gifts from his creatures; he is not enriched by his creatures. He is the absolute giver of every good and perfect gift.
3. God has no disordered desires. Unlike the gods of Olympus, the true and living God is not subject to passions. He is not tempted nor can he be tempted. Morally speaking, God is light and in him there is no darkness at all.
(1) Their first (legitimate) worry is that the hymn might imply the idea, popularized in 19th century Kenoticism, that the Son of God "emptied" himself of certain divine attributes when he became incarnate.
However, whatever Charles Wesley may have meant by that particular line, I don't think Kenoticism is necessarily implied by the hymn, which can be taken in a very straightforward Pauline sense (a la Phil 2).