There is growing legal debate on whether the regulations which give effect to the lockdown are lawful. An attempt to explain that debate follows.
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The legal issue, in a nutshell, is whether that Act actually gives the government the power to do what it has done.
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I hope he doesn't mind me summarising his reasoning as follows.
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ukhumanrightsblog.com/2020/04/06/loc…
1) The powers are to place restrictions those who may be infected. But these regs restrict *everyone*.
2) Though there's a power to restrict movement of "groups" of persons who may be infected, the entire population can't realistically be described as such.
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1) If the mags couldn't make an order over the whole population, why can the minister?
2) Isn't this, really, *more* than a mere restriction on where people go/whom they have contact with?
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daqc.co.uk/2020/03/26/can…
In uber-summary, they argue:
1) the regs purport to authorise what would otherwise amount to false imprisonment/trespass to the person
2) Parlt can only do that with clear words
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coronavirus.blackstonechambers.com/coronavirus-an…
4) Tho' courts may interpret law differently in times of crisis to enable confinement, the issue is that parlt doesn't seem to have contemplated the parent Act being used for this purpose.
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(1) The Act empowers to ministers to make provision "generally"
(2) The power re movement/contact is enough...
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ukconstitutionallaw.org/2020/04/01/jef…
(4) The gvt in 2008 said that the new powers would "enable a quick response to new/unknown diseases"and recognised that this could infringe liberties.
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In the meantime, *still follow the rules*.
/ends