MACBETH: “So foul and fair a day I have not seen.”
I’ve been thinking about this line a lot. What does Macbeth mean, why does he say it, and why did Shakespeare make this his first line in the play?
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Except, CRUCIAL DIFF: To the witches foul IS fair, but to Macbeth they are still two different things.
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Now... ”I have not seen”...
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Losing clear sight indicates a fractured mind. Witnessing violence can cause psychological damage.
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Shakespeare was quite the writer.
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Night all.
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