**Thread **🧡

I don’t know if PROP is intentionally trying to be misleading but at this point there is no way they can be this willfully blind to the data.. This new article written today by their organization is highly misleading. I want to go through some of the things they
mention in their article.. So below they mention deaths from prescription opioids continue to contribute to drug overdose deaths.. 1st problem is that is not entirely accurate, 2nd is they don’t define what a prescription opioid death means.. This statement needs to be qualified.
What is the source, what drugs are involved. The data does not parse this out.. Many of the Rx opioid deaths involves drugs that were diverted, also combined with other drugs as well (psychostimulants, benzos, antidepressants, barbiturates etc) Rx deaths alone is most likely alot
lower.. Rx ODs have increased since 1999 but it has been stable over the past years as I highlighted in red from the CDC wonder data. it hasn’t gone over 20k deaths. but as I mentioned before these deaths involve diversion and also combination of other drugs (licit & illicit)
Rx opioid annual deaths have never been as high as illicit fentanyl deaths as seen below almost 60k for last year.. also Rx opioid deaths decreased last year based on the provisional data that came out.. So no Rx opioid deaths are not contributing to overdose deaths they are
Being trumped by illict fentanyl and poly substance combinations.. In the article PROP also mentioned above that the U.S. still uses Rx opioids more than any other country in the 🌎... Saying this glosses over the gross inequities to opioid access here in the U.S. and abroad
There are so many things more I could say about the article but this point I wanted to highlight.. Rx opioids are not driving the crisis and are not contributing to the crisis in any profound manner as I outlined above.. #TwitteRx #medtwitter #opioidcrisis

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More from @GhanaboyPharmd

28 Jun

There has been a disturbing trend of some healthcare providers discussing how racial disparities and socioeconomic disparities have been a protective role for African Americans in order to prevent them from getting opioid therapy and getting β€œaddicted” below documents
some of this.. Thanks @life_is_art___ for sharing this video below. This is a video by Dr. Tauben from the University of Washington School of medicine giving a lecture in 2018 regarding the opioid epidemic.. Quote listed below:

β€œLike all things socioeconomic disparities abound which is good for people of color because their less likely to be exposed to opioids because we dont prescribe them opioids because we dont trust them based on the color of their skin
Read 7 tweets
23 May
Interesting article from pharmacy times.. Once again i think it greatly misses the mark.. Their answer to slowing the opioid crisis is to reduce opioid prescribing in the hospital.. Once again this obsession with focusing on Rx opioids is misguided

For almost the past 10 years this crisis has been dominated by illicit fentanyl, and polysubstance abuse.. Stimulants are also on the rise, and some experts are saying we could see a 4th wave involving stimulants.. This crisis is being dominated by an adulterated supply
The way to solve this is to have safe consumption sites, drug testing strips, expanding MAT, etc.. If we know what drugs are causing overdose deaths we can understand how to solve this problem.. Truth is rx opioid deaths alone have been decreasing for some time now as well as
Read 4 tweets
28 Mar
Kolodny frequently states that just because Rx opioids have declined around the same time as increases in overdose deaths climbed up doesn’t mean A caused B.. It’s ironic in his lecture below he states that around the same time opioid sales went up as well as opioid death and
addiction and one caused the other. These all happened around the same time but does that mean one caused the other? Correlation doesn’t equate to causation right? it’s interesting he says that regarding decrease in Rx opioids and increase in ODs, but doesn’t apply the same logic
in his lecture above.. Why is that? It’s because his worldview is so focused on Rx opioids being the cause of everything in this crisis that he doesn’t stay consistent in his reasoning.

Read 4 tweets
25 Mar
Looks like more people are asking all the right questions..
πŸ‘€ πŸ‘€
Read 4 tweets
24 Mar
Another crazy aspect of kolodny lecture with @Pharmed_Out yesterday was when he stated in the beginning of his lecture that one of the wrong ways to frame the opioid crisis is to focus mainly on overdose deaths and the drugs involved. As a pharmacist who works in the hospital I
Cringed so hard at that statement.. When a patient comes in the ER with an OD situation its kind of important to know what drug is involved so we can give proper treatment (opioids, beta blockers, Tylenol etc).. Also its very important to know what drugs are involved because
Its important to understand what source, and the nature of the overdose.. Is it from an illicit or an Rx source? Also how many drugs were involved.. A person may have uses an Rx but also combined many other illicit drugs that ultimately caused the death.. Also
Read 5 tweets
12 Mar

I don’t know how folks continue to take her seriously but George Floyd DID NOT die from a drug overdose.. The autopsy said he had 11ng/ml in his system based on the postmortem reports.. First of all you can’t properly determine antemortem drug concentrations
based solely on postmortem drug concentrations.. It is highly variable and many factors need to be understood as shown below.. Utilizing the postmortem data alone to characterize Floyd as a drug addict does not correlate. Image
So let’s discuss the level of fentanyl he had in his system which was 11ng/ml. Is this a fatal level? As was mentioned above to base this postmortem level as if this accurately describes his antemortem level is not correct. As I mentioned the postmortem data is highly variable
Read 11 tweets

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