1/ Once upon a time I wrote a #tweetorial about #TCDs. It ended with this great hook feat Beyonce… and… then I got distracted with other things because (⬇️)
(Thinking I don’t remember this post at all, but great! I want to read about TCDs, here you go:
2/ Also, side note, can we talk about Meredith gray’s hair from that tweetorial? If you are in really in medicine and have this perfect blow-out hair, please DM me so I can know your secret.
3/ Takeaways from the last #tweetorial
⭐️TCDs use u/s waves to calculate the velocity of intracranial blood flow
⭐️We measure systolic velocity (PSV), end diastolic velocity (EDV), Pulsatility Index (PI) & mean flow velocity (MFV)
⭐️TCDs are freq used for vasospasm monitoring
4/ But as @namorrismd pointed out, while TCDs are sensitive for vasospasm (90%) and have a good NPV (92%), the PPV is low (57%).
6/ What might be a more useful way to understand cerebral hemodynamics is checking for vascular reactivity w/ a CO2 challenge during TCDs (@namorris). Loss of CVR id'ed pts @ high risk for DCI (sensitivity 91%) this has also been done with acetazolamide. ja.ma/3zZ2P9o
6/ Why these two agents? Because both decrease the pH. Remember low pH is a potent vasodilator.
(The opposition is true of high pH… pls don’t hyperventilate the pt in vasospasm!)
Normal response to CO2 is to increase CBF.
The MCA velocities increase by 2-4% per 1 mmHg of CO2
7/ Wait.
Earlier I said that we are monitoring for increased velocities to detect vasospasm…And now, I'm saying that increased velocities mean more CBF, not less??
So...Are increased velocities good or bad?
So glad you asked!
8/ This gets back to the Lindegaard ratio. Which you’ll recall is the MCA Vmean / ICA Vmean.
🙀Vasospasm causes vasoconstriction solely in the intracranial arteries (LR increases), potentially indicating worsening CBF and a risk for DCI*
*Remember VSP is not the same as DCI
😸Lowering the pH systemically vasodilates the ICA and the MCA, allowing more blood at faster speeds through the entire system.
LR stays normal to slightly elevated
9/ MFV ⬆️(>~120) & LR ⬇️ (<~3-4): suspect hyperemia (usually not a bat thing, but might be problematic in situations w/ impaired cerebral auto-reg or post carotid stenting/CEA)
MFV ⬆️ (>~120) & LR ⬆️ (>~-4-6): suspect vasospasm.
(this is a gradient & clinical context matters!)
10/ But what if the MFV is low?
When I started fellowship and saw a low Vmean, I'd think, "Great! this patient is not in vasospasm! everything is fine!"
11/ That is, unfortunately, not always true.
Why?
Because there is more to TCDs than the Vmean. The waveform matters and one of the ways that that is numerically captured is the pulsatility index.
Pulsatility Index=
(Peak Systolic Vel – End Diastolic Vel)/Mean Flow Vel.
12/ As distal resistance increases the peak systolic velocity increases.
BUT! Because the resistance is high, forward flow drastically slows during diastole.
And you get a waveform that ends up looking like this:
13/ Normal PI is around 1.
Something >~1.5 (or a sudden increase from prior) should clue you in to one of two things:
⭐️Distal vasospasm
⭐️Elevated ICP (causing compressive resistance on distal arteries)
Check out @ghoshal_shivani's noninvasive mini talk instagram.com/tv/CTFFrl2Hy83…
14/ Here's an example:
47 yo W w/ aSAH HH4 post bleed day 4 w/ poor exam despite EVD.
TCD with RMCA Vmeans low (in the 40s)
All good, no vasospasm, right?
15/ Of course not -- No. This is not good at all!
The waveform here is highly abnormal with a dramatically elevated PI in the R MCA territory (other territory PIs were much more modestly elevated, near 1.2-1.5)
16/ STAT CTA demonstrated severe vasospasm in the DISTAL branches of the MCA.
So, elevated PIs in this case clued us into a high distal resistance from spasm.
Pt was treated with IA therapy with mild improvement in velocities and exam.
17/ Another example:
30 yo W aSAH HH4 with large Sylvian hematoma from rupture of an M2 aneurysm (scan ⬇️) PBD 12. Poor exam.
18/ TCDs demonstrate pretty normal V Means
But the PIs are severely elevated in every single window (almost all >2.5)!
17/ Repeat CT scan demonstrated a new EVD tract hemorrhage.
So, here the elevated PI reflected distal downstream compression 2/2 high ICP.
Although the bleed was small, in someone who’s cerebral compliance was already maxed, this was enough to nearly result in herniation.
18/ In this case, EVD had clotted was no longer functional, so we didn't have an invasive ICP monitor. It was the the TCDs waveforms that actually dramatically directed patient care.
Several months after the decompressive crani, this pt came back to the unit to say hi!!
19/ Major take aways:
1⃣ TCDs = sensitive & a good screening tool for vasospasm
2⃣ pH changes vascular flow
3⃣ The pulsatility index and the TCD waveforms are ways to noninvasively look for distal vasospasm & intracranial hypertension
1/WE'RE BACK!
A 52 yo architect presents with a year of difficulty with memory & planning.
At work, she can't adapt to the new software.
Family notes she “forgot” steps in planning their annual vacations (“she didn’t book the hotel!”)
She's increasingly irritated & withdrawn.
2/ At work this had led to significant trouble and her manager has asked her to cut back on hours. She became increasingly anxious at work and irritated.
Her primary care doctor ordered an MRI which was reported as normal, particularly noting normal hippocampus volume.
3/ She underwent a neuropsychological assessment which underscored impairments in executive functions and cognitive flexibility.
However, she did poorly across many tests, including validity measures.
2/ Start with 'is the AMS appropriate for the degree of critical illness?'
Often it is.
But do some digging, did the AMS precede the illness? ...Is it more than what you would expect?
Start with this flow chart⬇️
3/ Is there AMS+ Fever+ headache/meningismus/photophobia or seizures??
(AMS + fever is usually septic encephalopathy)
Add the other findings= reasonable concern for CNS infection... start here⬇️; remember that CNS infections can cause ICP issues and infectious vasculopathy!
1/ A 34 yo M presents with worsening confusion and seizures. He is febrile.
He is intubated and transferred to the NeuroICU.
A #continuumcase about a cause that’s probably low (not) on your DDx.
2/ I’m not even going to ask if you want an LP next, because “Fever, Status, AMS” = I wanted that LP way before this MRI.
You get one and the protein is 80, TNC #155, and glucose 80 (serum 147). Cultures and HSV PCR are pending.
3/ We are clearly in the realm of “inflammation.”
W/ the leptomeningeal enhancement, I’m not ruling bacterial meningitis out (empiric abx until culture back!), but the glucose is reassuringly high for that. Viral meningoencephalitis is a top consideration so bring on acyclovir!
1/ A 75 yo M is brought in by his wife bc he is forgetful & “continues to drop things.”
She notes he's increasingly tearful, forgetful, and has an odd movement in his right hand.
MRI, EEG, LP were all normal.
In the room he keeps doing this with his face:
A #ContinuumCase
2/ What do you worry about most?
3/ Any of these would be reasonable. You could certainly frame this as a rapidly progressive dementia (BTW there is an excellent continuum article on the subject, this is one of the most visited on the website!)
He has been paranoid and confused in the previous weeks.
MRI 👇. A large abdominal mass was identified on imaging.
You know what this is, but do you know why we treat it the way we do?
A #ContinuumCase on immunomodulators
2/ ok ok, everyone gets to vote on what's going on before we dive in on how we are going to treat it and why.
so what do you think?
3/ Anti-NMDA receptor encephalitis is caused by anti-neural antibodies against the cell surface proteins (in this cause the NMDA receptor) this causes in a stereotyped way a progression through
⭐️Psychosis
⭐️Seizures
⭐️Sympathetic storming
⭐️Orofacial dystonias