1/10
A 26 y/o woman presents with migratory arthritis. Started with a red and hot foot/ankle. Then went to the knee. Overuse, she was told. When ice/rest did not help, she went to the hospital.
An arthrocentesis procedure was performed.
2/10
20K white blood cells but no organisms. She was taken for a washout procedure for presumed septic arthritis.
And when the knee didn't improve, she was taken for another one.
And when she still didn't improve, she was transferred to our hospital.
3/10
We consult our framework for arthritis.
4/10
Inflammatory arthritis is suggested by the cardinal physical findings of inflammation: erythema (rubor), warmth (calor), pain (dolor), and swelling (tumor).
As seen in this elbow joint from another patient:
5/10
Our patient has inflammatory arthritis. Next we think about the number of joints that are involved.
6/10
There are 2 joints involved, putting us in the category of oligoarticular arthritis, which helps to focus our differential diagnosis.
Now we can seek hypothesis-driven information from the history and the exam.
7/10
One of our hypotheses leads us to examine her fingernails.
What is this finding?
8/10
We were looking for nail bed pitting but instead find what looks like a drop of oil.
Ah, the oil drop sign.
So we perform a full skin examine and the following findings were hiding on the nape of the neck (had to lift up her hair to see it) and the back of her ear:
9/10
There are several spondyloarthritides, among them psoriatic arthritis.
Patient was started on methotrexate and etanercept, with subsequent resolution of symptoms.
10/10
This patient went through several unnecessary surgical procedures.
1/12
Previously healthy 18 M presents with polyuria, polydipsia, abdominal pain, and intense vomiting.
RR is 28 breaths per minute. ABG: pH is 7.29, PaCO2 is 26 mm Hg, HCO3− is 12.
What acid/base disturbance(s) is present and what is the underlying cause?
2/12
Measurement of the pH of blood (from ABG) is the first diagnostic step in determining the nature of an acid-base disturbance. Acidemia refers to pH < 7.35; alkalemia refers to pH > 7.45.
With a pH of 7.29, our patient is acidemic.
3/12
-emia refers to the acid-base state of blood (acidic or alkaline); -osis refers to system-based disorders that affect the acid-base state of blood.
There can only be one acid-base state of blood at a given time but multiple acid-base disorders can exist simultaneously.
1/9 A 33 y/o F with carpal tunnel syndrome presents with polyuria and polydipsia. She has a fasting serum glucose of 212 mg/dL and a hemoglobin a1c of 9.7%.
Do you have an approach to hyperglycemia?
2/9 The first step is to determine whether we are dealing with insulin-dependent hyperglycemia or insulin-independent hyperglycemia.
3/9 Insulin-dependent hyperglycemia occurs as a result of insulin deficiency; insulin-independent hyperglycemia occurs despite the presence of insulin and is primarily the result of insulin resistance.
1/10
A young man presents with hematuria and is found to have these painful skin lesions on physical exam.
2/10
In a patient with hematuria, the first question I always ask is: what is the source of that blood?
Is it glomerular or non-glomerular?
3/10
How can we tell if the bleeding is glomerular or not? We have to evaluate the urine sediment. But the eyes can’t see what the mind doesn’t know. So what are we looking for?
2/9 The etiologies of weakness can be subdivided into 4 main categories:
3/9 What are the signs of an UMN lesion?
No (or minimal) muscle atrophy, no fasciculations, increased tone, + Babinski’s, and increased reflexes, the latter of which is demonstrated below in a different patient with a L-sided stroke.
1/10
A 76 y/o man presents with swallowing difficulty.
So why are we looking at his hands?
2/10
What’s your approach to dysphagia?
The first thing we want to determine is whether dysphagia is oropharyngeal or esophageal.
3/10
The patient not have trouble initiating a swallow and there is no choking, coughing, or drooling. Food material seems to get stuck in the middle of his chest.
These features point away from oropharyngeal dysphagia and toward esophageal dysphagia.
This middle-age patient was admitted several weeks ago with cardiogenic shock of unclear etiology. He is recovering well on the ward when I meet him. This is what I see:
2/11
Here's another view of these vigorous carotid pulses (Corrigan's pulse). Classically associated with aortic regurgitation (like we saw 2 weeks ago), there are several other causes:
1. High-output state (eg, wet beriberi) like we saw last week 2. Coarctation of the aorta
3/11
I immediately think he must have aortic regurgitation. I listen, but I don't hear a diastolic murmur.
Still, I evaluate his nail beds and this is what I see: