Ted Te Profile picture
May 1 6 tweets 2 min read
Two key personalities involved in persecution of @SenLeiladeLima have sworn that they were coerced to implicate her. Saying it again:the right and decent thing for the DOJ is to withdraw the charges against her and for the court to dismiss them now. #FreeLeilaDeLimaNow
Ragos implicates a former SOJ and a panel of prosecutors. This is a very serious charge which taints the entire process of probable cause determination and the basis for the charges against her. At worst, it’s basis for reasonable doubt.
So, the ombudsman (is he still around?) has motu proprio powers to investigate malfeasance in public office. Ragos’s affidavit is more than sufficient basis for the ombudsman to commence one. Of course, no expectation that the SOJ will investigate (prove me wrong, though).
Gumabon v. Director of Prisons remains good law and is basis to say that any act that violates the rights of an accused is void and ousts a court of jurisdiction. Arguably, habeas corpus lies even if the case is pending. The trial courts also have motu proprio powers to act.
Espinosa and Ragos now confirm what many knew but couldn’t prove: that the prosecution was stage-managed and the law was weaponized. The trial courts should not be passive receptacles of “evidence” but must be active vessels of/for justice and the rule of law.They should act now.
Ragos’s statement is crucial as it was basis for the court to deny Sen. de Lima’s demurrer. Now that it has been belied, the court should take action, require Ragos to take the stand and recant, and then dismiss the case.

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More from @TedTe

Dec 21, 2020
The spin now is that the killer cop has mental health issues, obviously trying to set up an "insanity" defense. Here's the thing--"insanity" as an exempting circumstance under Art. 12 is not a medical term but a legal concept. "Insanity" does not equate to "crazy." [thread]
Insanity as a defense must be proven by an accused in court. It means, though, that the accused must first be charged--it cannot be administratively determined, i.e., at the level of the DOJ or the PNP.
It is defined as a "complete deprivation of freedom, intelligence, and will" at the time of the felony, meaning that the capacity to form a criminal intent is completely impaired, thus removing the element of criminal intent that is essential to a felony under Article 3.
Read 6 tweets
Dec 21, 2020
It is the weirdest time to be a teacher of criminal law because it is weird to teach about the things that the law prohibits and makes unlawful when there just are so many examples in real life about people getting away, literally, with murder. #LawNotes [thread]
Questions that ran through my mind about the murderer cop: (a) is there recidivism or habituality? (b) what about habitual delinquency? Since there were multiple acts, is it right to say "double murder" or should it be two counts of murder? #LawNotes
If it turns out that he was already facing homicide charges (thus the recidivism question), what was the internal police machinery doing? Could a strong administrative machinery which could impose and enforce preventive suspensions and disarming erring cops have prevented this?
Read 7 tweets

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