Edward Feser Profile picture
Jun 9 10 tweets 3 min read Twitter logo Read on Twitter
1/10 Here’s another case of someone actually trying to defend the circumstantial ad hominem fallacy (also known as the appeal to motive). It’s a fine example of irrationality masquerading as sophistication, containing several errors worth unpacking. Image
2/10 Notice first that, like so many other kinds of fallacious reasoning, it can easily be turned against the person who appeals to it. In particular, the tactic of claiming that others are guilty of motivated reasoning can *itself* be dismissed as a kind of motivated reasoning,
3/10 because the tactic allows one to feel superior to one’s opponents, and to dismiss their arguments a priori rather than having to do the hard work of evaluating them on the merits. Those who commit the circumstantial ad hominem are thus hoist on their own petard.
4/10 Second, note that this guy claims that one can “notice” suspect motives in another person that the person may not be aware of, and indeed can “intuit” them. But it is one thing to *claim* to know another’s hidden motives, and quite another thing *actually* to know them.
5/10 How are the “intuitions” in question any less subjective than other intuitions? Simply being able to *imagine* a motive that might have inspired a certain argument proves nothing, because one could do that for *every* argument that anyone’s ever given for any conclusion,
6/10 including the conclusions favored by the person accusing others of bad motives – once again putting him in a self-defeating position. A third problem is that even when we know that a person has some motive, it doesn’t follow that the person is not being objective.
7/10 For it’s possible both to be inclined to a certain POV and at the same time to take enough critical distance toward it to be able to evaluate arguments & evidence dispassionately. So, it’s no good to say “So-and-so has such-and-such a motive” and leave it at that.
8/10 You have to be able to *show* exactly how the motive in question undermined the integrity of the case he’s made. A fourth problem concerns this guy’s assertion that when someone accuses you of bad motives, “demonstrating they’re wrong is far from trivial.”
9/10 Well, sure it is, given that strictly to *demonstrate* this would require getting him to peer inside your mind, which is impossible. But this makes it sound like the burden of proof is on the person being accused of a bad motive. No, it’s on the person making the accusation.
10/10 Fifth & finally, though, even if you could demonstrate with metaphysical certainty that a person is hopelessly biased, that remains *completely irrelevant* to whether some *argument* he’s given is either sound or cogent. More on that in this thread:

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More from @FeserEdward

Jun 10
1/5 Aristotle famously distinguishes the weak-willed man (the akrates), who regrets his wrongdoing and can reform, from the licentious man (the akolastos), who is so thoroughly in love with immoral pleasures that he is incapable of perceiving, much less willing, what is good.
2/5 Aquinas modifies this distinction insofar as he takes even the latter to be capable of repentance before death. All the same, he notes that the sins of the licentious man are more grave than those of the weak-willed man, & that his repentance is more difficult and less likely
3/5 Those who today loudly insist on more lenient treatment of wrongdoers – both in the secular context, with respect to dealing with criminals, and in the religious context, with respect to those in thrall to sexual vice and the like – routinely ignore this crucial distinction.
Read 5 tweets
Jun 10
1/5 Depends on the nature of the premises a particular argument appeals to. For example, suppose a premise was “Such-and-such a study shows that second hand smoke poses no serious health risk,” and it turned out that the study was funded by the tobacco industry.
2/5 Then I’d say that it would of course be reasonable to take the study with a grain of salt until it could be established that it met the usual scientific standards, that other studies were considered to see if they were consistent with this result, etc.
3/5 But suppose instead that an argument appealed to more abstract philosophical premises about the right to take risks with one’s own health, etc. Then, whatever one thought about such arguments, who funded the writing up of them really isn’t relevant.
Read 5 tweets
Jun 9
1/12 The ignorance of basic logic is breathtaking (and note that here too at least one of these people somehow got a PhD). The answer is: No, when evaluating an *argument*, motives are completely irrelevant. What motives are relevant to is *testimony*. These are often confused. Image
2/12 Hence, suppose the only evidence that some suspect committed a crime is the testimony of an alleged eyewitness, but you have evidence that that eyewitness has a personal grudge against the suspect. Then you have good reason to doubt the testimony. No fallacy there.
3/12 Or suppose that a guy at the iPhone store tells you that iPhones are the best product on the market. Even if he’s an expert on the subject, you have reason not to take his expert testimony too seriously, because you know he has a motive to sell you a phone. No fallacy there.
Read 12 tweets
May 26
1/18 A false dichotomy. For one thing, recognizing the economic problem does not entail denying the cultural problem (and @SohrabAhmari did not say that it does). Both must be addressed. We can walk and chew gum at the same time. But there’s also a much deeper point
2/18 which is that cultural assumptions always inform how economic matters are described & evaluated. E.g. if the issue is wages, is the problem that they are not sufficient to allow a father to support a family (as Catholic social teaching a la Pope Leo XIII would emphasize)?
3/18 Is the problem instead that men and women do not receive “equal pay for equal work” (as feminists would emphasize)? Is the problem that wages don’t reflect racial “equity” (as CRT would emphasize)? And what exactly counts as having an adequate wage?
Read 18 tweets
May 2
1/14 I appreciate this civil and constructive thread from @mfjlewis (which I’ve posted screenshots of here to make it easier to refer to and respond to as a whole). First, no, I don’t question your motivations, Mike. I’m certain you’re sincere and intend merely to defend what ImageImage
2/14 you take to be binding teaching. I just think your zeal sometimes gets the better of you and that you can be unfair to loyal Catholics who disagree with you in good faith. But I don’t deny that you have the right to defend the position you do on this issue.
3/14 I ask only that you give a fair hearing to the arguments of those of us on the other side, and see that we’re no less motivated by love for the Church and the papacy and a desire to assent to whatever actually is binding on the faithful. (Yes, there are hotheads who go
Read 14 tweets
Apr 17
1/6 No, there’s no conundrum at all unless one is a Modernist. For what generates the problem is novelty, not continuity. The Modernist wants to use the Church’s magisterium to support novelty, but the very attempt casts doubt on the magisterium’s credibility. THAT is the dilemma
2/6 The defender of continuity faces no such problem. If the magisterium teaches contrary to scripture or 2000 years of tradition in a *non-ex cathedra* act, it is in error & that is that. The Church herself acknowledges that that can happen, & it has happened a handful of times
3/6 What would cause a genuine problem is if the magisterium were to attempt to teach contrary to scripture or 2000 years of tradition in an *ex cathedra act*. That would falsify Catholicism. But it has never happened and, if Catholicism is true (which it is) never will
Read 6 tweets

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