Take a look at the values in the graphic. Without looking ahead in the thread, can you make a diagnosis?
2/9
The patient has ERYTHROCYTOSIS (defined as an increased RBC count) and POLYCYTHEMIA (based on the Hct, but not the Hb).
3/9
What's up with the elevated Hct but normal Hb? Well, there is violation of the 3:1 rule which states that the Hct is normally 3x the Hb (e.g., Hct 45, Hb 15). Stated another way, the MCHC (Hb/Hct) is low, thus there is HYPOCHROMIA.
4/9
We can calculate not only the MCHC but also the MCV (Hct/RBC count). The MCV is only 66 fL, so the patient has non-anemic hypochromic microcytosis.
5/9
To summarize, the patient has erythrocytosis, polycythemia (according to Hct), and non-anemic hypochromic microcytosis.
6/9
We can illustrate the RBCs using a schematic of spun hematocrits.
7/9
This is a patient with newly diagnosed Jak2 V617F-positive polycythemia vera. Many such patients present with concomitant iron deficiency (from increased Fe demand +/- occult GI bleeding).
8/9
It's really interesting to consider that the patient with PV may present with erythrocytosis alone (masked PV), then develop erythrocytosis and polycythemia (+/- iron deficiency) and finally - during a specific window of treatment - polycythemia alone. So cool!!
9/9
When considering the Hb and Hct in polycythemia vera, the Hct is the critical parameter because it is the primary determinant of blood viscosity and thrombotic complications. So, the presence of a normal Hb - as in this case - should not provide reassurance!
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A woman with ferritin 10 and Hb 12.2 (baseline 14). How should this be described?
Here’s how you answered:
• non-anemic Fe deficiency: 35%
• Fe deficiency anemia: 32%
• Fe deficiency with relative anemia: 27%
• none: 6%
Really interesting spread!
2/11
This tells us something important: clinicians sense a mismatch between definition-based language and physiology-based thinking, even if we disagree on terminology.
3/11
By strict WHO criteria, she is not anemic.
Hb ≥12 in women = normal.
So formally the correct label is: iron deficiency without anemia.
In acute GI bleed anemia, would you give 1 g IV iron regardless of ferritin?
Results:
• 27% yes — anticipate iron debt
• 12% sometimes
• 21% only if ferritin is low
• 41% no
2/13
First, an important acknowledgment:
There is no right answer here.
There are no firm guidelines that tell us what to do in this situation. Reasonable clinicians land in different places.
This is a gray zone where physiology, timing, and judgment matter.
3/13
So rather than argue what we should do, I want to walk through the numbers and biology and explain why some clinicians anticipate iron debt even when ferritin is normal.
Yesterday I posted a CBC + reticulocyte count and asked for your diagnostic thoughts. Many of you offered great reasoning. The correct diagnosis was hemoglobin C disease.
Let’s unpack why this case is such a good learning example. 👇
2/9
Microcytosis often triggers a reflex binary:
iron deficiency vs thalassemia trait.
That’s a useful starting point. But it’s incomplete. Structural hemoglobin variants (like HbC and HbE) also belong on that list.
3/9
Several people calculated the Mentzer index (MCV/RBC):
75 / 4.0 ≈ 18 → “suggests iron deficiency (ID).”
Important teaching point:
The Mentzer index was designed to distinguish thal trait vs ID. It is not validated for structural hemoglobinopathies like HbC or HbE.