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Out of curiosity ... if this result was *declared void* by the Electoral Commissioner - due to corrupt & illegal practices that might reasonably be expected to have influenced the result - then why doesn't the same apply to the referendum?🤔#CriminalBrexit
london.gov.uk/press-releases…
london.gov.uk/press-releases…
Is it because the first was an offence under S127 of the Representation of the People Act 1983, whereas the referendum was under the European Union Referendum Act 2015 which had no such offence? Precedent? Genuine question. Can any legal experts assist? @JolyonMaugham @JMPSimor
OK, thanks to @VesperUK for pointing me in the right direction. Summary of the legal loophole (paradox) that says if the referendum had been legally binding it would have been declared void, but it wasn't legally binding so the PM was wrong to trigger A50! brexitshambles.com/the-legal-loop…
