#idgrandrounds 1/2 32 F w multiple sclerosis on rituximab, +10d fever, R knee pain in December. Had dysuria tx w/ TMP/SMX 1 wk prior. No trauma. Exam: swollen/tender R knee. No rash. Purulent synovial fluid: 60,000 cells 70%N. Multiple synovial/blood bacteria/fungal/AFB Cx (-)
2/2 No response w/ cefe/vanc. GC/CT(-), HIV(-), Q/Brucella(-), fungal studies(-).
Lives in rural IL, no travel. Denies substance use. Single, sexually active w/ 1 partner. No pets. Unemployed.
3/12
Infection looms large in this DDX. The most common cause of 2️⃣ is prior Abx use (in this case could be TMP/SMX).
But it also opens a Pandora’s box of atypical infections that hardly grow on routine culture (e.g. fungal, mycobacterial).
4/12
2️⃣ + 3️⃣ pushes our DDX needle to think of reactive arthritis & DGI/gonococcal arthritis as many of you pointed out.
We should also do a diagnostic pause and consider our own biases (is the prior GU symptom a signal or a noise) & entertain other DDX (gout).
5/12
What comes next?
We then try to retrieve illness scripts from prior readings/experiences. Building a compendium of these scripts takes time, experience, and listening to a lot of @CPSolvers episodes 👌@DxRxEdu. This allows us to connect the dots and recognize patterns.
6/12
Mycoplasma hominis & Ureaplasma sp are closely related bacteria (genera separated in 1974) that normally colonize the GU tract.
7/12
Septic arthritis is one of the most recognized manifestations. Suspect Mycoplasma hominis/Ureaplasma infection in a patient w/ purulent, PMN-predominant septic arthritis w/ negative GS (lacks cell wall) and Cx, who doesn’t respond to routine abx.
8/12
In this excellent review, more than half of patients had prior GU symptoms or GU instrumentation. bit.ly/3eNz6H7
9/12
Last year, we discussed a recently described association with Ureaplasma infection 👉 post-transplant hyperammonemia (perfect time to review this; see thread 👇)
10/12
Since Mycoplasma/Ureaplasma don’t routinely grown on Cx (requires special techniques), it is hard to Dx. When highly suspected based on clinical presentation, empiric Tx can be started & nucleic acid test (PCR) obtained. +PCR outside of GU tract + clinical SSX = diagnosis.
11/12
Drug of choice is doxy or FQ. They are generally resistant to all beta lactams, slufa, TMP, and aminoglycosides.
12/12
In summary, the illness script for invasive Mycoplasma hominis/Ureaplasma is:
38/M w/ progressive loss of scalp, axilla, and chest hairs. Recently dx w/ HIV 6 mos ago when he developed dissem cryptococcosis. He has now been taking TDF/FTC, raltegravir, TMP/SMX, azithromycin, & fluconazole x 6 mos. Drug-induced alopecia is suspected. Most likely culprit?
1/8 Nice job! 52% got the right answer, fluconazole.
In animals/humans, fluconazole has been shown to induce telogen effluvium bit.ly/2MMnF9j, one of the most common causes of nonscarring hair loss (see Table 👇 bit.ly/38rTXyN).
2/8 Normal hair cycle: anagen (growth) 👉catagen (transformation) 👉telogen (resting) 👉 shedding. Cycle is asynchronous (no mass hair shedding). At any given time, 90% of hair are in anagen, 1% in catagen, 10% in telogen.
32/M, h/o HSV encep 1 mo ago (s/p 21 d ACV), on ceftri/metronidazole for sacral OM, p/t ER +delusion, fever, seizure. CSF: WBC 25 (L>N), ⬆️TP, n/l gluc,(-)HSV. Septic w/u all(-). MRI:
b/l temporal lobe enhancement ⬆️ from prior. Whch of the ff is the best Tx for this condition?
1/11
The group is split b/n steroids & d/c metronidazole. The answer here is Tx w/ steroids. Indeed, this is a case of autoimmune post-HSV encephalitis (anti-NMDA receptor encephalitis post-HSV). Good job @LemuelNonMD @LeMiguelChavez@adilrashid83@Orchid10Tree@KhalafSuha
2/11
Metronidazole-induced encephalopathy is predominated by cerebellar Sx w/ a distinct involvement of the dentato-rubro-olivary pathway on imaging. We’ve talked about it here before. Refer👇for further discussion
67/M w/ poor control DM, BPH, +10 d dysuria. T38.1, BP 120/80, +tender R CVA. WBC 14. U/A: 21 WBC, UCx: (-)bacteria, +Candida glabrata (fluc-R) x 2 samples. BCx(-), CT: +prostate hypertrophy. Has had no response to ceftriaxone. Has no Foley cath. Which of the ff is indicated?
1/15
The vote is split b/n micafungin and ampho deoxycholate! Thank you for all your responses!
Although micafungin may be a reasonable option, the correct answer here is ampho deoxycholate.
In this tweetorial, we will talk about Candida UTI and its treatment. @ID_fellows
2/15
Candiduria can be challenging as it can potentially indicate: colonization, UTI, or candidemia/disseminated infxn.
Candiduria from a clean-voided urine sample is uncommon (<1%); more commonly seen in hospitalized patients w/ an indwelling bladder cath.
2/20
For centuries, physicians have relied upon meticulous observations to dx infections. For many years, observation of the fever pattern provided physicians w/ important diagnostic clues. However, the advent of abx & advanced dx & imaging has changed this landscape. #idmesh
3/20
Swift initiation of abx & antipyretics make it impossible to verify historical descriptions of certain fever patterns. Hence, inquiry into fever patterns loses its clinical significance bit.ly/33iXCLs.
29M w severe persistent asthma p/w recurrent exacerbations despite optimal LABA/intranasal steroids. Abs eos 1250, total Ig E 1500, CT +mucus plugging, central bronchiectasis upper-middle lobes. Originally from Mexico, now in Texas. Which of the ff tests is indicated?
1/10
Great job! The majority got the right answer, allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA).
Recurrent asthma exacerbations despite optimal asthma therapy & eosinophilia a/w mucus plugging and multilobar central bronchiectasis should raise suspicion for ABPA.
2/10
Aspergillosis, classified as saprophytic (aspergilloma), allergic (ABPA, hypersensitivity pneumonitis, allergic sinusitis), or invasive (pulmonary, other organs).
ABPA: hypersensitivity to A. fumigatus; can also occur from other fungi (referred as ABPM, M for mycosis).
48M +cirrhosis, underwent routine large volume paracentesis. +Abd fullness, (-)fever, abd pain/tenderness, confusion. Ascitic fluid: light yellow, 100 PMNs, SAAG 1.5, Cx +pan-susc E. coli. WBC 8, Crea 0.8, bili 1.8. Which of the ff is best management for this patient?
1/5 Only 21% got this right: no abx, repeat para in 48H.
The dx of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) rests on finding >/= 250 PMNs/mm3 in the ascitic fluid. Most patients with SBP are symptomatic (only 13% with no symptoms bit.ly/3gp5nEU)
2/5
The patient in our case is asymptomatic (no fever, abdominal pain, mental status change 👉most common SBP symptoms) and the ascitic fluid is <250. This is a variant of SBP known as: