Kris Profile picture
28 Oct, 20 tweets, 4 min read
Let's do dispersion trading for the uninitiated.

The vets will need to bear with me, it's been 20 years since i traded index anything...but that actually shows why it's a good thing to explain. The lessons from it come to bear on thinking about all portfolios, even today.
First what is dispersion trading?

In its purest form, imagine selling an index straddle and buying the components' straddles in proportion to the index weights. In practice, liquidity makes this impossible. Instead one settles for a "dirty dispersion" position.
The trade is "short correlation". It wants the average corr between the stocks in the basket to be as low as possible.

Imagine a 2 stock index. You own the straddles on the stocks and you are short the index straddle. The 2 stocks rip in opposite directions. The index is unch
That's a homerun! You win on every leg. You win on the call leg of one stock's straddle, the put leg of the other stock's straddle and the index doesn't go anywhere allowing you to collect on the full short premium.

Now let's move to the opposite scenario.
The stocks move exactly together in a big way. You win on your stock straddles but you will lose more on your index short.

Why?

The index is cheaper than the sum of the legs in straddle space.

We will need an intuitive equation to understand that.
3 terms:

Index variance
Avg stock variance
Avg cross corr of each stock to every other stock

The equation:

Index variance = avg stock Variance x Avg Corr

perhaps more intuitive:

Avg corr = index variance / avg stock variance

Unless corr is 1, index var < stock var!
It bears repeating...the avg corr is the ratio of index var to stock var. So if index var is trading for 50% of the var of the avg weighted stock vol then the implied cross correlation is .50

Be careful, you need to take square roots to move from var space to vol space.
It follows that if you square the ratio of index vol to stock vol you get the implied corr.

So if the index vol is 20% and the avg weighted stock vol is 30% then implied corr = (.2/.3)^2

Implied corr = .44

Let's talk correlation risk...
If stock vols are constant, and index vols increase, implied corr is increasing. Likewise, if correlation surges the spread of index vol to stock vols must be narrowing (at corr = 1 they would converge)

Here's index vol relation to corr for a fixed stock vol of 30%
Dispersion is tricky.

If you structure the trade vega neutral or premium neutral you will be short correlation convexity.

As corr ⬆️: you get shorter vol as the index short will grows faster than the stock vol longs

As corr ⬇️: vice versa. Getting longer vol as it falls
You are short corr (in other words, taking a similar risk premia as any risk-on position) and your position size has neg gamma with respect to changes in corr.

You may choose to overweight stock long vega to flatten the curvature, but now you increase exposure to owning options
There is a lot of room for creativity in how you structure these trades. What you want your local gamma/theta profile to be, how much basis or synthetic basket risk you want to take with names you include or not since this is a "dirty" trade in the first place, etc etc.
Lessons that can be ported into less niche strategies:

The risk for any long/short trades in any portfolio of delta one or vol positions is as correlations increase your gross positions become exposed.

You can't hide behind "nets" when corrs explode higher.
Imagine a beta neutral trade where you are long 2 units of "alpha stock" and short 1 unit of index (assume they are the same vol, but "alpha" stock is .50 corr)

When corr ⏩ 1 you are no longer neutral but long equiv of 1 unit of index into a falling market, increasing corr mkt
Relative value books tend to blow up as corrs increase since corrs are used to weight positions.

A portfolio therefore that wins as corr (which is itself correlated with equity risk premia) increases should cost carry!
And in fact this is what we find…implied correlation trades at a premium to realized correlation. You pay a premium to hold that position and the dispersion trade is a source of carry correlated with conventional risk premia.

If you put the 3D options glasses back on, you see:
That source of carry has its own correlation skew across the surface…upside implied correlations are cheaper than downside correlations.

Implied correlation has a term structure as well.

Implied corrs are everywhere across the surface...and across sectors too...
Implied correlation can be measured for sector indices. Energy, biotech, bank etfs. All have implied correlations between basket components.

Then consider FX vol markets and how they care about the rate vols of the individual legs and, you guessed it, the correlation.
How about a US investor trading options on a foreign index of an exporter nation. Like Japan. There's an implied correlation between the yen and the equity index itself.

How do implied correlations correlate to systematic risk premia? How do they compare to realized corrs?
These types of questions are the start of seeing the world as one big spiderweb of risk premia and cross correlations.

Now go build the dashboard to find the cheapest hedges, the most efficient basis, or the most levered shot at a skewed assumption of a correlation persisting.

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More from @KrisAbdelmessih

27 Oct
A thought on premium in options.

Index options should be "overpriced". The question is how much premium do they deserve.

If stocks warrant a risk premium over the RFR it's because their systematic risk cannot be hedged.
Index options must conceptually inherit this premium otherwise there would an arb in portfolio allocation.

A index option, held delta neutral, gets paid as correlations in the marketplace increase. It literally makes money when systematic risk embodies.
A standard for deciding if puts are expensive:

Its price should have enough premium in it that by buying a put, if delta hedged, that you would actually have basis risk. In other words, it's premium should make it uncertain that you would actually make money in a sell-off.
Read 5 tweets
26 Oct
I sometimes explain how I use boardgames as a tool to teach my kids. The unsaid assumption is that "transference" works.

Paraphrasing from Yale:

Transfer” is a cognitive practice whereby a learner’s mastery of skills in one context enables them to apply it in another.

🤔

👇
I see examples of this all the time. Consider @Alex_Danco letter this week (I'm a big fan of his writing btw).

He writes about using poker as practice for decision-making practice. In the past, he's written about bridge as the cooperative, strategic analog to SV culture.
Kasparov has tacitly taken advantage of the fact that transference is a thing, parlaying his chess acumen into authoritative political strategy writing.

SIG hires world-class poker, backgammon, Magic, and chess players. On the Amex I met world-class bridge & chess players.
Read 15 tweets
23 Oct
Locking up your $$ to save you from yourself is a sales pitch in some parts.

I've said before:

"Any argument that says liquidity is bad because it exposes you to behavioral bias must address the value of that option."

Let's explore this.
First, why care?

Even if you want to lock up your $$ to "save you from yourself", that doesn't mean you don't deserve a discount for investing in something illiquid.

Your needs/preferences don't set the marginal price.

Don't be so vain, not everything is about you 🎶
The price of an illiquid investment are set by those who do care about liquidity even if you don't.

You inherit that discount the same way you get power windows for free nowadays. You get that even if you think you'd be better off with the exercise of cranking your own windows.
Read 28 tweets
15 Oct
A very humble thought on math in trading. I say humble because I risk straw-manning quant (look, I have yet to meet an IYI type quant that Taleb would caricature. I've been blown away by the curiousity and brains of every quant I've worked with). So with that caveat...
I look at backtests. But their useful domain feels really narrow to me. I'm not a quant so maybe it's just fear of what's over my head. I'll give an example of the type of idea that diverts my eyes from backtesty work.
I'm more attracted to ideas that are upstream of past moves. Understanding flows is an example of that.

How does it interact with backtests?

At the meta level. When I see a backtest and long histories etc my first meta question is about is N really N?
Read 9 tweets
13 Oct
Compounded returns experience "variance drain". This will be true if your bet size or allocation is a fixed percent of your wealth, savings, bankroll etc

Was messing with some coin flip stuff and got diverted by an illustration of geometric returns I figured I'd post...
First some quick intuition.

If you bet 1% of your wealth on a coin flip and win then lose, you are net down money. This is symmetrical. If you lose, then win, still down money.

1.01 * .99 = .99 * 1.01

This is compounding land
In additive or non-compounding land we bet a fixed dollar amount regardless of wealth.

So if I start with $100 and win a flip, then bet $1 again and lose the flip I'm back to $100.

The $1 I bet when my bankroll was less than 1% of my bankroll.

Additive world is not % world
Read 17 tweets
7 Oct
In @Jesse_Livermore interview he mentions how exceedingly high valuations are increasingly dependent on liquidity or what he terms "networks of confidence".

He refers back to prior work that shows how you'd need a healthy discount to intrinsic to buy an asset you couldn't sell
The fact that you can sell your at an in line price lowers your risk threshold to buy expensive assets.

And we see assets with long durations now. I think of duration as how long it would take to recoup your initial investment. Stocks and bonds have long durations today.
If these long durations are acceptable because we trust liquidity, and the idea that the market will not wake up one day and just reset at much lower multiples, it feels like risk that should be priced in an implied distribution.
Read 17 tweets

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