Thread by @anneapplebaum

Hungary and Poland have vetoed the EU budget because of a regulatuon linking payments to the "rule of law." Why was this linkage considered necessary? Because both countries are in violation of EU standards on apolitical justice.

Hungary is in trouble for corruption: the country misuses EU funds many times more than any other country. Poland has illegally subjugated its constitutional tribunal to party control. Other EU courts are now questioning the independence of Polish courts.

Now, how are the ruling parties explaining this issue to their voters? In Poland, the deputy justice minister has said "rule of law" means Poland would have to accept "children being sold at markets" and gay marriage

Hungary's PM has said, falsely, that Hungary is being punished for its immigration policy. The requirement that EU countries abide by the rule of law has nothing to do with immigration policy.

This is how culture wars work. Political parties and propagandists seek to create hysteria about "child abuse" or "foreigners" in order to hide their corruption and illegal activity. We are watching that process unfold right now.

Here is a more detailed explanation
carnegieeurope.eu/strategiceurop… via @Judy_Dempsey