Ted Te Profile picture
21 Dec, 6 tweets, 1 min read
The spin now is that the killer cop has mental health issues, obviously trying to set up an "insanity" defense. Here's the thing--"insanity" as an exempting circumstance under Art. 12 is not a medical term but a legal concept. "Insanity" does not equate to "crazy." [thread]
Insanity as a defense must be proven by an accused in court. It means, though, that the accused must first be charged--it cannot be administratively determined, i.e., at the level of the DOJ or the PNP.
It is defined as a "complete deprivation of freedom, intelligence, and will" at the time of the felony, meaning that the capacity to form a criminal intent is completely impaired, thus removing the element of criminal intent that is essential to a felony under Article 3.
When an exempting circumstance like insanity is proven, there is a felony but no felon. Spinning the act as an insane act does not mean that the cop shouldn't be charged for two counts of murder because there is still civil liability that must be determined.
Similar to "nanlaban" cases, which rely on self-defense under Article 11 RPC, the process requires that the killers must first be charged and detained (murder is bailable only by judicial discretion) subject to the accused's proof of the Article 12 defense.
To put it plainly, a plea of "insanity" does not warrant an administrative or non-judicial exoneration. It is an exempting circumstance that must be proven in court. [End]

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More from @TedTe

21 Dec
It is the weirdest time to be a teacher of criminal law because it is weird to teach about the things that the law prohibits and makes unlawful when there just are so many examples in real life about people getting away, literally, with murder. #LawNotes [thread]
Questions that ran through my mind about the murderer cop: (a) is there recidivism or habituality? (b) what about habitual delinquency? Since there were multiple acts, is it right to say "double murder" or should it be two counts of murder? #LawNotes
If it turns out that he was already facing homicide charges (thus the recidivism question), what was the internal police machinery doing? Could a strong administrative machinery which could impose and enforce preventive suspensions and disarming erring cops have prevented this?
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