Sam Levey Profile picture
12 Feb, 15 tweets, 4 min read
Let me try to clear up a point of confusion on MMT's "sectoral balance" approach.

In the equation (S - I) = (G - T) + (X - M)... why is it "S - I"? What does this mean? Why do we care about this rather than just "saving" S? Here's a thread on how I think about it 1/n
What we want to look at are deficits and surpluses. "Deficit" = spending more than your income, and "surplus" = spending less than your income.

If we split the whole world into parts, then it's only possible for one of those parts to be in surplus if some other is in deficit. /2
Why is this? Because if one part cuts down its spending (without its income falling) then some other part is now receiving less income, because that income was coming from the spending.

Here's more on sectoral balances: /3
Anyway, the math.

We split the world into the government sector GS, domestic private sector PS, and the foreign sector FS (rest of world). Consider the spending flows going into PS from outside: G, coming from GS*, and X, coming from FS. /4
Now consider flows coming out of PS to other sectors: T going to GS, and M going to FS. There's one more special set of flows, which are those that both start and end inside the private sector: C + I - M (because C and I count some imports so we need to subtract them out*) /5
Adding the flows that originate in the PS regardless of where they go gives: T + M + C + I - M = T + C + I.

Again "surplus" = income minus outgo, so to calculate the private sector surplus, we take PS income Y and subtract this thing T + C + I. /6
We can do this in 2 ways because Y gets written in 2 ways. One way is by "source" of income. This is the familiar GDP formula, Y = C + I + G + X - M.

This gives (C + I + G + X - M) - (T + C + I) = (G - T) + (X - M). The 1st term is the GS deficit and the 2nd is the FS deficit /7
The second way is to break Y by "use" of income, usually given as Y = C + S + T. Now to calculate the surplus we have (C + S + T) - (T + C + I) = (S - I). This is the PS surplus.

Set this equal to the equation in the previous tweet to get PS surplus = GS deficit + FS deficit. /8
All we did was: total private income minus total private spending (call it outgo if you're not comfortable calling taxes "spending"). It just happens that this reduces to S - I. When you see it, instead of seeing S and I, you can see it as the 2 bigger expressions, reduced. /9
Intuition on S - I? I dunno, partly it's a definitional issue, investment is just not defined as something that "comes out of" income. Or, sometimes in simple circular flow models, Y is received entirely by households so S is something households do, while I is something /10
that firms do. In that case, S refers to a household surplus, and I effectively refers to a firm sector deficit. So "saving" S can be positive because even if PS as a whole isn't in surplus, as the household sector can be in surplus by having the firm sector in deficit. /11
Why care? Because we observe that PS as a whole usually tends to be in surplus. This does NOT mean that "saving" is impossible without gov deficits: households can run surpluses if firms are willing to deficit spend. Or even simpler, you can always "save" in physical terms by /12
doing things like canning fruit from the tree in your yard; no gov deficit required for this!

But if the PS as a whole wants to run a surplus, in order to net accumulate financial claims, then this requires either a GS or FS deficit. /Fin
* I assumed here that the government doesn't import anything, only the PS imports, but this doesn't change the final result, just simplifies some of the steps.
@gabriel_mathy should we go around again on this?

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More from @SamHLevey

22 Sep 20
The language of "sticky prices" implies that "flexible prices" are the base case and sticky ones are a deviation, but I think really the opposite makes more sense.

When you buy something, the starting assumption for the price is always "whatever it was last time." It seems (1/4)
like there's an extra step involved if the price changes. In a business, somebody came and changed a posted price, an additional action compared to just selling you a product.

So maybe better language would be that "stable prices" are the norm and "volatile prices" a deviation?
Or maybe better still, what's considered the expected case should depend on the context. With an auction mechanism where price is intended to be sensitive to market conditions, flexible is the norm, whereas with posted, administered prices, stable is the norm.

Then again,
Read 4 tweets
20 Sep 20
A thread of polls on the assumptions of "Perfect Competition."

1/5: "Perfect Competition" implicitly assumes the existence and well-functioning of some sort of auction-like mechanism.
2/5: "Perfect Competition" implicitly assumes the existence and well-functioning of institutions that transmit information about the product (such as product details and quality).
3/5: "Perfect Competition" implicitly assumes the existence and well-functioning of institutions that transmit information about the state of the market (such as whether there are actually any units for sale or whether there's a shortage).
Read 7 tweets
29 Aug 20
To distract me from studying, here's a thread entitled "What Did War Bonds Actually Do - For the Layperson"

Tl;dr: the goal of war bonds is to get you to stop spending your money at the store. /1
The basic problem of wartime economics is this: workers are getting paid to produce war goods that are not available for them to buy. This is money that's burning a hole in your pocket, but that doesn't correspond to any real goods/services that it can be spent on. /2
If workers tried to spend all this income, then they would be competing for consumer goods at a time when these are very scarce, because so much of the economy needs to be devoted to winning the war. That could drive up prices - inflation. /3
Read 11 tweets
29 Aug 20
@FrancescoNicoli thinking more about your claim that perfect competition isn't limited to using an auction as a market mechanism. Sounded reasonable at first, but more I think about it, I don't think that's right. If the "price-taking" firm can sell any quantity at the
market price, how is that possible unless there's some sort of auction mechanism? I was reading you to be saying that PC might be close enough in the case of the firm announcing a price but severely constrained by competition (eg. a farmer's market). But if the firm announces
a price, then by definition they've given up control of quantity to the market: they sell whatever buyers buy from them at the posted price. If they produce more, it won't get sold unless they either actively recruit buyers (conflicts w/ perfect information and static prefs) or
Read 4 tweets
22 Jul 20
Mainstream economics says 2 different things about gov debt sustainability. In this thread I'll look at the more common view.

It says that it must be bad if the debt-to-GDP ratio goes to infinity. A little bit of math then shows that for a given size primary deficit (the part /1
of the deficit before interest payments), the debt won't go to infinity if the interest rate on the debt is less than the growth rate of GDP

This whole concept is bad because it neglects feedbacks from the debt to the primary deficit. A gov deficit implies /2
a non-gov surplus: if the government is issuing liabilities, then the private sector is accumulating them as financial assets. But as those savings increase, the desire to increase them further eventually goes down (think about it: it'd be cool to have 5x your income saved, /3
Read 6 tweets
20 Jun 20
In a break from the ordinary, here's some wild existential thoughts I've been pondering. (I'll return to economics tweets tomorrow)

"You" are indistinguishable from a perfect mathematical model of you. Like you, the model would be a black box that receives inputs and produces...
output. With a sophisticated enough model, it really would be indistinguishable from you - it would answer all questions the same way, and like you it report that it "feels" and has an introspective experience. (This is related to Attention Schema Theory, which argues that if our
brains use a simplified mental model of how attention works, it would report something resembling mystical qualitative experience, just like we do.)

Now suppose that this model of you is embedded in a larger mathematical model of a universe, which determines what inputs "you"
Read 12 tweets

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