Thread: Me and financial laissez faire. To the charges of extolling the virtues of some past "free banking" arrangements (but _not_ the U.S. version!), and urging that others recognize the possibility of market-based monetary order, I plead guilty. But...
I deny being a knee-jerk proponent of monetary or financial laissez faire, and I regret that some of my critics either read me that way, or erect a cardboard-cutout knee-jerk laissez-faire "version" of me, the better to easily knock it down!
My position has long been, not that government intervention in money and related industries is bad per se (like practically all economists, I'm a consequentialist), but that to understand what such intervention really accomplishes one must understand what would happen w/out it.
Economists working in other fields have long taken this approach. A trade economist who has never studies the implications of free trade would be a very badly trained trade economist. It doesn't follow that all competent trade economists must favor completely free trade...
or that those who explore the implications of free trade must be die-hard proponents of free trade.
Before I decided to major in econ., ecology was one of my main interests. Among other things, I learned about how crucial it was to understand the "natural order" of an ecosystem before intervening in it, if potentially serious unintended consequences were to be avoided.
When I jumped into econ., I thought, "O.K.: this is just ecology for human ecosystems." (BTW: I highly recommend Jane Jacob's _The Nature of Economics_, which draws out that comparison.) So I considered the same approach important in assessing intervention in markets.
Hayek's _Denationalisation of Money_ got me thinking that way about gov't interventions in money and financial markets. I thought it strange that so few people had seriously studied the implications of monetary "laissez faire," and that doing so made one a "fringe" thinker.
Given how far the pendulum had swung in favor of government involvement in money, it was natural for me to point to the "nicer" implications of certain departures from the status quo, and particularly those of competition in banknote issuance. Nicer if done right!
(I was, of course, led in that direction in part by having read some chapters of what was then @lawrencehwhite1's dissertation on Scottish banking.) Every serious student of money and banking really ought to read them. You don't even have to pay to do so! iea.org.uk/sites/default/…
Early on, the great and kind Anna Schwartz (alt-m.org/2015/11/11/hap…) warned me not to put all my eggs in the "free banking" basket. So I wrote about all sorts of stuff. Would that this would have sufficed to get my colleagues to scatter rose petals along my career path!
But even my first book, _The Theory of Free Banking_ wasn't a plea for a revival of Scottish-style banking ca. 1830. In turning to policy, it assumes a fiat regime; its main argument is that competititive note issuance can help stabilize MV, reducing the need for an activist CB.
In fact, I've long since accepted that there isn't a snowflakes chance in hell of seeing U.S. commercial banks issue paper currency again. But the lessons of that book seem to me potentially applicable to digital alternatives as well.
Indeed, the study of "free banking" more generally seems to me today extremely relevant to thinking about the future of digital currency. Many critics of stablecoins obviously think so. Alas, they know only tiny bits of that history, if that. alt-m.org/2021/07/06/the…
But saying that people should take that history seriously (instead of cherry-picking the worst episodes, and misrepresenting what went awry in them, as Gorton and Zhang do in their recent WP) isn't pleading for turning back the clock, or for monetary laissez faire.
So, if I clarify the record of past "private currency" arrangements, or point to the possibility that certain new ones might work well without any need for heavy-handed government regulations, kindly don't dismiss my arguments as those of a died-in-the-wool anarcho capitalist!
Instead, consider that my "kooky" point of view may have exposed me to some facts and possibilities others have overlooked.
(You read that right: I was taking the desirability of what's now called "NGDP level targeting" for granted in the early 1980s. My book explains my reasons for so doing, albeit using different terms.)
Sorry: "dyed" in the wool!
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I suppose that disputes about this will never end. But I am willing to die on the hill that says that fiat money is neither equity nor debt, that is, that units of it aren't "claims" of any sort.
This stand may seem bizarre because we're used to thinking of financial assets as claims to either real assets or other financial assets, and because accounting conventions, developed for the most part when there were no exceptions, don't allow them to be treated otherwise.
But fiat money _is_ an exception, because its a means for "final" payment. Other USD-denominated financial assets are claims to fiat Federal Reserve notes. But a Federal Reserve note itself isn't a claim to anything. The "buck" stops with it, so to speak.
As a _person_ I have moral principles (believe it or not). But I am a consequentialist when it comes to arguing matters of economic policy, for two simple reasons:
(1) though it helps us to anticipate the consequences of various policy choices, economic analysis tells us nothing about whether those choices are or are not "moral" in the way that deontological ethics might;
and (2) different people hold different moral principles. Economics may allow me to convince them--in some, not all, cases--of the merits or shortcomings of some policy, without asking them to change those principles.
Actually, although she has a valid underlying point, I think @AOC isn't quite right here. In general, genuine inflation (a persistent, upward movement in many prices) needn't be a uniform movement, for several reasons. 1/n
It's true that economists believe that, the the absence of cyclical unemployment, monetary expansion tends to raise absolute prices, but that it has relatively little if any influence on relative prices in the long run. Money is, in other words, "neutral" in the long run.
But granting for arguments' sake this long-run neutrality proposition, it doesn't follow that the we can dismiss excessively easy money as a potential cause of inflation because some prices are rising faster than others.
I agree 100% with Steve's take on fiat money. It's value doesn't rest upon it's being a redeemable claim to anything. The mere fact fiat can purchase things at varying prices, including "get out of jail" cards from tax authorities, doesn't make it a "claim" to anything.
Because the U.S. government can decide at any time to alter the # of fiat dollars it takes to satisfy tax obligations, those dollars are not "claims" to any pre-agreed upon amount of "get out of jail" cards (or gov't services or whatever you choose to call what tax payments buy).
In contrast, a commercial bank is not free to say to its depositors, "We regret to inform you that we've raised the price of Federal Reserve notes, so that it will now take $2 of your credits with us to purchase a $1 bill."
Evidently @RaulACarrillo didn't like my argument: he tweeted two snide dismissals, only to delete them before I could reply. But as they are still visible (I include a screenshot of one) I will reply to it.
Now, Mr. Carrillo, my comments referred only to the question of "monopoly," the definition of which is or ought to be known to any 1st year econ student, or anyone who has a decent vocabulary.
(That Wikipedia, which you also take me to task for citing, happens to offer the stnd. definition hardly makes it wrong.)
My point is that entry into the banking business is not so strict as to allow that business to be characterized as a "monopoly"
I enjoyed hearing @MehrsaBaradaran and others discuss strategies for banking the unbanked during the recent house hearing. But I want to push back against something Mehrsa said then.
She said, "We give banks a charter, and they have a monopoly on payments and financial transactions and credit." With all due respect to Mehrsa, this is abusing the plain meaning of terms.
To refer just to Wikipedia's definition (the first definition that comes up on Google) "A monopoly exists when a specific person or enterprise is the only supplier of a particular commodity."