Today, by far the most dominant recitation of the Quran is that of Ḥafṣ (d. 180/796) who transmits from the Kufan reciter ʿĀṣim (d. 127/745). But this dominant position it has today appears to have been a rather recent one.
Thread on looking for Ḥafṣ in early manuscripts 🧵
Contrary to certain pseudoscholarly modern claims, there is absolutely no evidence that Ḥafṣ represents the "reading of the masses" from time immemorial until today. The reading was one of many and it only started to become dominant during the ottoman empire.
But just because it became dominant then, of course does not mean the reading was not transmitted before that. It certainly was, that much is clear even from the literary sources. Already with Ibn Mujāhid (d. 324/936) who canonized the seven, Ḥafṣ is included in transmission.
But can we find manuscript evidence for this reading in Kufic manuscripts before canonization? A way to look for this, is to examine the locations of the mufradāt Ḥafṣ, i.e. readings that among the canonical readers are *exclusive* to Ḥafṣ. This allows rapid identification.
In the following I have restricted my search to manuscripts that can be accessed from corpuscoranicum.de. While there are some other manuscripts, CC is a huge corpus and can be thought of as quite a representative sample (that is also easy to search!).
Q2:67: Ḥafṣ is the only one who read huzuwan; Rest: huzuʾan or huzʾan.
1: Minutoli 296: huz(u)ʾan
2: Wetzstein II 1913: could be consistent with huzuwan.
3: Arabe 325j: red: huzʾan, green: huzuʾan
4: Arabe 346d: might be consistent with huzuwan.
1: Arabe 367(h): red: huzuʾan; green: huzuwan
So one manuscript so far certainly contains Ḥafṣ' reading as a secondarily marked reading. The other two are more ambiguous
Expect spelling: either img 2 or 3.
Wetzstein II 1913 certainly isn't Ḥafṣ on other grounds.
Q3:83: Ḥafṣ yurǧaʿūna; rest: turǧaʿūna or tarǧiʿūna.
1: Wetzstein II 1920: turǧaʿūna (but dotting clearly a later hand)
2: Arabe 336: turǧaʿūna
3: Arabe 337c: turǧaʿūna
4: Arabe 339: turǧaʿūna
1: Arabe 352(h): Red tarǧiʿūna (a non-canonical reading) Blue: yurǧaʿūna (Ḥafṣ' reading!)
So the only time the reading shows up is as a secondary reading (red, is always the main and default reading).
Q3:157: Ḥafṣ yaǧmaʿūna, rest: taǧmaʿūna.
1: Arabe 339: yaǧmaʿūna (Ḥafṣ' reading)
But note that earlier Arabe 339 had the non-Ḥafṣ reading, so the manuscript is not consistent with his canonical reading.
Q4:152: Ḥafṣ yuʾtīhim; Rest: nuʾtīhim
1: Wetzstein II 1915: yuʾtīhim (Ḥafṣ, but dotting is probably a later hand. Red vocalisation on this same page has non-Ḥafṣ readings).
2: Arabe 330f: nuʾtīhimū
3: Arabe 330g: nuʾtīhim
4: Arabe 337a: nuʾtīhim
1: Arabe 339: nuʾtīhim (again confirming it is not Ḥafṣ)
2: Arabe 344b: nuʾtīhim/nuʾtīhumū (dotting likely later)
One manuscript with the Ḥafṣ reading, but whose further system clearly is not Ḥafṣ but something non-canonical.
Q5:107: Ḥafṣ istaḥaqqa; Rest: ustuḥiqqa
1: W.552: ustuḥiqqa
2: Wetzstein II 1913: ustuḥiqqa (indeed not Ḥafṣ as anticipated)
3: Wetzstein II 1915: Red difficult to see, but green = istaḥaqqa so main reading is not Ḥafṣ (see above)
4: Arabe 337c: ustuḥiqqa
So Ḥafṣ reading one time found marks as a secondary reading.
Q7:117 Ḥafṣ: talqafu; Rest: talaqqafu
1: W.552: talaqqafu (word-internal vowels are generally only spelled with geminates or when non-obvious)
2: Wetzstein II 1913: likely talqafu.
3: Saray Medina 1a: talaqqafu
4: Arabe 339: talqafu (?) dots are missing entirely, even rafʿ.
1: Arabe 340f: talqafu. Based on ʾuṣūl, this is not Ḥafṣ, but non-canonical.
2: Arabe 364b: yellow: talaqqafu; what is green? Why is red absent? Red is not Ḥafṣ based on ʾuṣūl.
3: Rampur Raza No. 1: talqafu
Ḥafṣ seems common (or is it defective spelling of talaqqafu?).
We could go on, but this thread is getting long, so I'll leave the rest as an exercise to the reader. But some conclusions: From this sample it is clear that readings that are unique to Ḥafṣ among the canonical readers were not unique.
You find his readings, occasionally, in manuscripts that otherwise clearly do not follow his reading.
His reading, seems to be absent in the early records. Does this mean the reading is made up? Cooked up by Ibn Mujāhid?
Certainly not.
The literary sources give enough reports independent of ibn Mujāhid of the reading of Ḥafṣ. And these reports clearly agree to such a significant degree, that we can confidently say that Ḥafṣ indeed recited something close to how his reading is recited today.
However, the manuscript record does show us that indeed Ḥafṣ did not enjoy the ubiquitous popularity in the centuries directly after his lifetime, that it has come to enjoy today. Manuscripts can be used to find out when he starts gaining popularity. Nobody has done this yes!
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Seeing how al-Dānī works his way through competing reports for certain readings is really interesting. There is often a conflict between what he gets from books and oral tradition. Oral tradition does not always win out (though it often does).
Let's look at Q38:46 🧵
al-Dānī starts: "Nāfiʿ and the transmission of Hišām [from Ibn ʿĀmir] in my recitation [to my teachers] read "bi-ḫāliṣati ḏikrā d-dār" (Q38:46) without tanwīn as a construct phrase; the rest read "bi-ḫāliṣatin" with Tanwīn."
However, Muḥammad b. ʿAlī from Ibn Muǧāhid said that Nāfiʿ only removes the nūn.
This is a citation from ibn Muǧāhid's kitāb al-sabʿah, which al-Dānī receives through Muḥammad b. ʿAlī.
And indeed Ibn Muǧāhid does not mention Hišām ʿan Ibn ʿĀmir but only Nāfiʿ!
My current project is collecting a database of vocalised Quranic manuscripts, to study which reading traditions they reflect. A large number (likely the majority) do not represent any known reading traditions from the literary tradition. A thread on one such a reading type. 🧵
When a manuscript has an unknown non-canonical reading, it is typically unique to that manuscript: not a single manuscript is exactly alike. Nevertheless, we do find real 'patterns' among groups of manuscripts, that do things in similar ways that are distinct from known readings.
For example, a large number of manuscripts in the B.II style have an unusual pronominal system where the plural pronouns are long (humū, ʾantumū etc.) and the third person singular suffix -hū never harmonizes (bi-raḥmatihū, fīhu, ʿalayhu), *except* with the preposition bihī.
This article examines a famous passage in the Hadith that related the canonization of the Quran, where the Uthmanic committee has a disagreement on how to write the word for "Ark".
Insight into loan strategies elucidates the passage.
In the Quran today the Ark of the Covenant is spelled التابوت and pronounced al-tābūt. This is a loanword from the Aramaic tēḇōṯ-ā, likely via Gəʿəz tābōt.
However, reports (which go back to Ibn Šihāb al-Zuhrī (d. 124/741-2)) tell us there was a controversy on how to spell it.
The Medinan Zayd b. Ṯābit wanted to spell it with a final hāʾ: التابوه, while his Quraši colleagues insisted it should be spelled التابوت.
They take it up with ʿUṯmān who says: the Quran was revealed in the Quraysh dialect, so it should be written according to it.
Ibn al-Bawwāb's quran, following the Classical Arabic orthography (rather than the rasm), spells ʾalif maqṣūrah before suffixes with ʾalif rather than (the Uthmanic) yāʾ. However, sometimes it does not, e.g. in Q79 here: مرساها, تخشاها, ضحاها, BUT: ذكريها. What gives? 🧵
Turns out there is a beautiful perfectly regular distribution!
The Ibn al-Bawwāb Quran is written according to the transmission of al-Dūrī from the reading of ʾAbū ʿAmr.
ʾAbū ʿAmr treats such ʾalifāt maqṣūrah is a special way. He reads them as /ā/ most of the time...
But he reads with ʾimālah, i.e. /ē/ whenever a /r/ precedes.
When the word stands in rhyme position, the /ā/ of such words is pronounced bayna lafẓay, i.e. /ǟ/.
And this distribution explains the spelling in the screenshot above, and throughout this manuscript!
If you look in a printed muṣḥaf today, and you're familiar with modern Arabic orthography, you will immediately be struck that many of the word are spelled rather strangely, and not in line with the modern norms.
This is both an ancient and a very modern phenomenon. 🧵
On the two page spread in the previous post alone there are 25 (if I didn't miss any) words that are not spelled the way we would "expect" them to.
The reason for this is because modern print editions today try to follow the Uthmanic rasm.
During the third caliph Uthman's reign, in the middle of the 7th century, he established an official standard of the text. This text was written in the spelling norms of the time. This spelling is called the rasm.
But since that time the orthographic norms of Arabic changed.
As some of you may know, I don't have a particularly high opinion of Arabic101, but now he's wading into the manuscript fray...
Will be live-tweeting facepalms as I go through it.
0:14 "what you see is 100% identical today to any Muṣḥaf".
Minor gripe. It's identical to the Madani Muṣḥaf, but not really to the Kufan, Basran or Damascene. But still 99.9% so this is really nitpicky.
0:43 "Re-phrased Ayat/Removed words/Added words" is of course anachronistic. It implies that the text we have today is more original than the Sanaa Palimpsest. Not much to suggest that.