Thread by @kograt

To make people vaccinated is a task which is not anyhow connected to this infectious decease. They OK to prohibit treatment just to get people vaccinated with "vaccine" which not stop the spread and not making any differences for anyone <50 in the decease outcome. Got it.

https://twitter.com/RWMaloneMD/status/1436497287665094658

Then Ill be speculate. The only reason. Let say GOOD reason is pfizer revenue then. So they are OK to kill people prohibiting the treatment just to make Pfizer revenue. And it at best cause.

The only other reason they are want to vaccinate everyone like a chickens just make them to be vaccinated. The thing is NIH tells that China sequenced the virus from patient December 31. But NIH was working with Moderna and got prototype in second week of January.

And NIH claim prototype in production was in February already. The question I have, did NIH had actual virus and sequenced it in US or they are just received data from China? Same for Russia and Britain.

The first Chinese vaccine was inactivated virus, but BioNTech, Oxford, Moderna, and Gamaleya made mRNA or vector based ones. Despite it was not in use technology and all the previous tries failed.

And they are made it even faster than China or about same speed. I could only conclude that none of them really sequenced the Virus at the time of development, they are all had just data published by China with sequence from China.

So all the Western world ended up mandating all it's population to receive the substance which is causes the body of recipient produces the protein which code was published by Chinese government. Did anyone checked what it really is? Just asking.

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