Marijn van Putten Profile picture
Oct 25, 2021 19 tweets 7 min read Read on X
The story of Lot and his people in the Quran recurs strikingly often throughout the Quran (Q11:77-83; Q15:51-77; Q26:160-75; Q27:54; Q37:133-8; Q51:24-37; Q54:33-9; Q80:33-42), and finds clear parallels with the story as told in Gen. 19.
A thread on a specific reading variant. 🧵 Image
It's been noted that a pivotal moment in the original story about Lot's wife is told quite differently in the Quran than how it is in the Genesis. In Genesis, as Lot and his family leave Sodom & Gomorrah, his wife looks back and turns into a pillar of salt. Image
In the Quran, the pillar of salt is missing entirely, and generally it's not the wife's looking back that causes her perdition. Instead she is said to be left behind, or even decreed to be left behind, e.g. Q15:60; Q27:57; Q37:135. But Q11:81 forms a confounding factor. ImageImageImageImage
Here 2 Angels come to warn Lot, and command him to leave with his family, and not turn around. After that a phrase follows: إلا امرأتك, which can be read in two different ways: ʾillā mraʾataka and ʾillā mraʾatuka. Both mean "except your wife", but what is being excepted differs. Image
The section consists of three phrases:
fa-ʾasri/fa-sri bi-ʾahlika bi-qiṭʿin mina l-layli "So travel with your family during a portion of the night"
wa-lā yaltafit minkum(ū) ʾaḥadun "and let among you not one turn around"
ʾillā mraʾataka/mraʾatuka "except your wife".
ʾillā "except" in positive sentences, is followed by the accusative, e.g. fa-saǧadū ʾillā ʾiblīsa "they prostrated, except for ʾIblīs".

But when excepting a negative sentence, it shows up in the nominative, as in lā ʾilāha ʾillā ḷḷāhu "there is no god but God".
So with: ʾillā mraʾataka, it excepts the positive phrase "so travel with your family, except your wife!". This is the majority reading.

ʾAbū ʿAmr and Ibn Kaṯīr read: ʾillā mraʾatuka, excepting the negative phrase: "And not one of you shall turn around, except your wife!"
Clearly these two readings are difficult to unify. Either the wife did not travel along, and stayed behind, or she went along and looked back (and turned into a pillar of salt?). Some exegetes on this verse:
1. Ibn Ḫālawayh (d. 381)
2. al-Ṭabarī (d. 310)
3. al-Farrāʾ (d. 207) ImageImageImage
The biblical parallel is tempting and Arberry indeed translates it (accidentally?) in the minority reading. This is taken up by Nora Schmid in her excellent paper in this verse (though she cites the majority reading, to which the translation does not match). ImageImage
But the other verses in the Quran, seem to suggest that Lot's wife did not come along and look back. No, they seem to suggest she never came along in the first place. Moreover, the episode about turning into a pillar of salt is completely missing.
Moreover, the companion Ibn Masʿūd is reported by al-Farrāʾ and others to have lacked the phrase wa-lā yaltafit minkum(ū) ʾaḥadun "and let among you not one turn around" altogether, which makes the thing which is being excepted even clearer. Image
Al-Ṭabarī is clear in his opinion, after reporting readings that lacked this phrase: "This points to the correctness of the reading with the accusative" (i.e. the wife being left behind). Thus (softly) rejecting the now canonical reading with the nominative. Image
So what do we make of Ibn Kaṯīr and his student ʾAbū ʿAmr's reading? Were they familiar with the biblical story, and did it tempt them to read it with the nominative? It is a real shame that academia seems wholly unaware of this reading and this grammatical subtlety.
As a result works that are explicitly concerned with this verse, and even explicitly with the biblical parallels miss commenting on this variant entirely (no mention in Le Coran des Historiens either for example, ).
Western commentaries on the Quranic text really ought to integrate the Quranic reading traditions more. #hafsonormativity is enough of a problem, but when commenting on the earliest strata of the Quran, you really can't rely on only one authority who became popular only very late
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Oops, in my hurry writing this thread I screwed up the Ibn Ḫālawayh screenshot: here it is! Image
(for the pedants among us: the case after ʾillā in negated sentences is technically not always nominative. It simply follows the case of the word it is excepting) Image

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More from @PhDniX

Jul 10
Ibn Ḫālawayh's (d. 380) Kitāb al-Badīʿ is an interesting book on the Qirāʾāt because it's the earliest surviving work that tries to simplify the transmissions of the readings, and does it rather differently from what becomes popular, the system of Ibn Ġalbūn the father (d. 389) Image
Ibn Ḫālawayh was Ibn Muǧāhid's student, who is widely held to be the canonizer of the seven reading traditions. Ibn Muǧāhid's book is the earliest book on the 7 reading traditions. But canon or not, Ibn Ḫālawayh's book actually describes 8 (adding Yaʿqūb).
Today the simplified system (and the only surviving one) is the "two-rawi canon". Each of the 7 readers, have two standard transmitters (all of them were once transmitter by more transmitters than those two). This system was introduced by ʾAbū al-Ṭayyib Ibn Ġalbūn in his ʾiršād. Image
Read 15 tweets
May 3
NEW PUBLICATION: "Pronominal variation in Arabic among grammarians, Qurʾānic readings traditions and manuscripts".

This article has been in publication hell for 4 years. But it was an seminal work for my current research project, and a great collaboration with Hythem Sidky.
🧵 Image
In this paper we try to describe the pronominal system used in early Islamic Classical Arabic. There is a striking amount of variation in this period, most of which does not survive into "standard classical Arabic".
We first look at the grammarians and how they describe the pronominal system.. Much of this description is already in my book (Van Putten 2022), but I assure you we wrote this way before I wrote that 🥲
Notable here is that Sībawayh prescribes minhū instead of now standard minhu. Image
Read 23 tweets
Apr 21
In my book "Quranic Arabic" I argue that if you look closely at the Quranic rasm you can deduce that the text has been composed in Hijazi Arabic (and later classicized into more mixed forms in the reading traditions). Can we identify dialects in poetry?
I think this is possible to some extent, yes. And so far this has really not been done at all. Most of the time people assume complete linguistic uniformity in the poetry, and don't really explore it further.
But there are a number of rather complex issues to contend with:
As @Quranic_Islam already identified, there are some philological problems that get in the way in poetry that aren't there for the Quran: I would not trust a hamzah being written in a written down poem. This might be classicization. So it's hard to test for this Hijazi isogloss.
Read 13 tweets
Apr 17
Last year I was asked to give a talk at the NISIS Autumn School about the textual history of the Quran. Here's a thread summarizing the points of that presentation. Specifically the presentation addresses some of Shoemaker's new objections on the Uthmanic canonization. Image
Traditionally, the third caliph ʿUṯmān is believed to have standardized the text.

However, in critical scholarship of the '70s the historicity of this view came to be questioned.

How can we really be sure that what the tradition tells us is correct?
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This skepticism wasn't wholly unwarranted at the time. The Uthmanic canonization really had been uncritically accepted, not based on any material evidence.

But we now have access to many manuscripts, beautifully digitized, we can test the historicity of these claims! Image
Read 27 tweets
Apr 13
The canonical Kufan readers Ḥamzah and al-Kisāʾī read the word ʾumm "mother" or ʾummahāt "mothers" with a kasrah whenever -ī or -i precedes, e.g.:
Q43:4 fī ʾimmi l-kitābi
Q39:6/Q53:32 fī buṭūni ʾimma/ihātikum

This seems random, but there is a general pattern here! 🧵 Image
This feature was explained al-Farrāʾ in a lengthy discussion at the start of his Maʿānī. This makes sense: al-Farrāʾ was al-Kisāʾī's student who in turn was Ḥamzah's. Surprisingly in "The Iconic Sībawayh" Brustad is under the misapprehension that this is not a canonical variant.

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This is irregular, such a vowel harmony does not occur in cases with other words that starts with ʾu-. For example, Q13:30 is just fī ʾummatin, not **fī ʾimmatin.

However this irregular reading is part of a larger pattern of vowel harmony accross guttural consonants.
Read 15 tweets
Mar 20
Those who have read my book on Quranic Arabic may have noticed that I translate The Arabic word luġah as "linguistic practice", rather than "dialect" which is how many people commonly translate it.

This is for good reason: among the Arab grammarians it did not mean dialect! 🧵 Image
In Modern Standard Arabic, luġah basically just means "language", as can be seen, e.g. on the Arabic Wikipedia page on the Dutch Language which calls it al-luġah al-hūlandiyyah.

This modern use gets projected onto the early Arab grammarians like Sībawayh and al-Farrāʾ. Image
But, they clearly do not mean that to the early grammarians. This is clear from statements like Sībawayh saying: faʿil forms that have a guttural consonant as second radical have four "luġāt": faʿil, fiʿil, faʿl and fiʿl.

In English a word or word-form cannot "have" a dialect. Image
Read 10 tweets

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