The story of Lot and his people in the Quran recurs strikingly often throughout the Quran (Q11:77-83; Q15:51-77; Q26:160-75; Q27:54; Q37:133-8; Q51:24-37; Q54:33-9; Q80:33-42), and finds clear parallels with the story as told in Gen. 19.
A thread on a specific reading variant. 🧵
It's been noted that a pivotal moment in the original story about Lot's wife is told quite differently in the Quran than how it is in the Genesis. In Genesis, as Lot and his family leave Sodom & Gomorrah, his wife looks back and turns into a pillar of salt.
In the Quran, the pillar of salt is missing entirely, and generally it's not the wife's looking back that causes her perdition. Instead she is said to be left behind, or even decreed to be left behind, e.g. Q15:60; Q27:57; Q37:135. But Q11:81 forms a confounding factor.
Here 2 Angels come to warn Lot, and command him to leave with his family, and not turn around. After that a phrase follows: إلا امرأتك, which can be read in two different ways: ʾillā mraʾataka and ʾillā mraʾatuka. Both mean "except your wife", but what is being excepted differs.
The section consists of three phrases:
fa-ʾasri/fa-sri bi-ʾahlika bi-qiṭʿin mina l-layli "So travel with your family during a portion of the night"
wa-lā yaltafit minkum(ū) ʾaḥadun "and let among you not one turn around"
ʾillā mraʾataka/mraʾatuka "except your wife".
ʾillā "except" in positive sentences, is followed by the accusative, e.g. fa-saǧadū ʾillā ʾiblīsa "they prostrated, except for ʾIblīs".
But when excepting a negative sentence, it shows up in the nominative, as in lā ʾilāha ʾillā ḷḷāhu "there is no god but God".
So with: ʾillā mraʾataka, it excepts the positive phrase "so travel with your family, except your wife!". This is the majority reading.
ʾAbū ʿAmr and Ibn Kaṯīr read: ʾillā mraʾatuka, excepting the negative phrase: "And not one of you shall turn around, except your wife!"
Clearly these two readings are difficult to unify. Either the wife did not travel along, and stayed behind, or she went along and looked back (and turned into a pillar of salt?). Some exegetes on this verse: 1. Ibn Ḫālawayh (d. 381) 2. al-Ṭabarī (d. 310) 3. al-Farrāʾ (d. 207)
The biblical parallel is tempting and Arberry indeed translates it (accidentally?) in the minority reading. This is taken up by Nora Schmid in her excellent paper in this verse (though she cites the majority reading, to which the translation does not match).
But the other verses in the Quran, seem to suggest that Lot's wife did not come along and look back. No, they seem to suggest she never came along in the first place. Moreover, the episode about turning into a pillar of salt is completely missing.
Moreover, the companion Ibn Masʿūd is reported by al-Farrāʾ and others to have lacked the phrase wa-lā yaltafit minkum(ū) ʾaḥadun "and let among you not one turn around" altogether, which makes the thing which is being excepted even clearer.
Al-Ṭabarī is clear in his opinion, after reporting readings that lacked this phrase: "This points to the correctness of the reading with the accusative" (i.e. the wife being left behind). Thus (softly) rejecting the now canonical reading with the nominative.
So what do we make of Ibn Kaṯīr and his student ʾAbū ʿAmr's reading? Were they familiar with the biblical story, and did it tempt them to read it with the nominative? It is a real shame that academia seems wholly unaware of this reading and this grammatical subtlety.
As a result works that are explicitly concerned with this verse, and even explicitly with the biblical parallels miss commenting on this variant entirely (no mention in Le Coran des Historiens either for example, ).
Western commentaries on the Quranic text really ought to integrate the Quranic reading traditions more. #hafsonormativity is enough of a problem, but when commenting on the earliest strata of the Quran, you really can't rely on only one authority who became popular only very late
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Oops, in my hurry writing this thread I screwed up the Ibn Ḫālawayh screenshot: here it is!
(for the pedants among us: the case after ʾillā in negated sentences is technically not always nominative. It simply follows the case of the word it is excepting)
To what extent was knowledge and transmission of the reading traditions dependent on written works and/or notebooks rather than the semi-oral process of reciting the Quran to a teacher?
In the transmission of Ibn Bakkār from Ibn ʿĀmir the written transmission is very clear. 🧵
The reading of the canonical Syrian reader Ibn ʿĀmir is not particularly well-transmitted. The two canonical transmitters Ibn Ḏakwān and Hišām are several generations removed from Ibn ʿĀmir, and Ibn Ḏakwān never had any students who recited the Quran to him.
Al-Dānī preserves three other transmission paths besides the canonical paths, although all of them only through a single ʾisnād.
The one we are interested in here is Ibn Bakkār's transmission. The ʾisnād is cool, it's transmitted through the fanous exegete Ibn Ǧarīr al-Ṭabarī!
An interesting interplay of orality and written transmission of the Quran that I recently ran into going through the Taysīr, at Q37:123 al-Dānī has a curious statement about the recitation of وان الياس... let's dive in!
al-Dānī says: "Ibn Ḏakwān in my recitation to al-Fārisī from al-Naqqās (sic, Naqqāš) from al-ʾAḫfaš from him: wa-inna lyāsa with removal of the hamzah, and the rest read it with the hamzah (i.e. ʾilyāsa).
And this is what I recited for Ibn Ḏakwān i the path of the Syrians"
"But Ibn Ḏakwān said in his book: "[الياس] is without hamzah. And God knows best what he meant by that."
So... what did he mean by that? The interpretation of al-Dānī's teachers is that it is with ʾalif al-waṣl. But, at least by later wording, that's a weird way of saying it.
Seeing how al-Dānī works his way through competing reports for certain readings is really interesting. There is often a conflict between what he gets from books and oral tradition. Oral tradition does not always win out (though it often does).
Let's look at Q38:46 🧵
al-Dānī starts: "Nāfiʿ and the transmission of Hišām [from Ibn ʿĀmir] in my recitation [to my teachers] read "bi-ḫāliṣati ḏikrā d-dār" (Q38:46) without tanwīn as a construct phrase; the rest read "bi-ḫāliṣatin" with Tanwīn."
However, Muḥammad b. ʿAlī from Ibn Muǧāhid said that Nāfiʿ only removes the nūn.
This is a citation from ibn Muǧāhid's kitāb al-sabʿah, which al-Dānī receives through Muḥammad b. ʿAlī.
And indeed Ibn Muǧāhid does not mention Hišām ʿan Ibn ʿĀmir but only Nāfiʿ!
My current project is collecting a database of vocalised Quranic manuscripts, to study which reading traditions they reflect. A large number (likely the majority) do not represent any known reading traditions from the literary tradition. A thread on one such a reading type. 🧵
When a manuscript has an unknown non-canonical reading, it is typically unique to that manuscript: not a single manuscript is exactly alike. Nevertheless, we do find real 'patterns' among groups of manuscripts, that do things in similar ways that are distinct from known readings.
For example, a large number of manuscripts in the B.II style have an unusual pronominal system where the plural pronouns are long (humū, ʾantumū etc.) and the third person singular suffix -hū never harmonizes (bi-raḥmatihū, fīhu, ʿalayhu), *except* with the preposition bihī.
This article examines a famous passage in the Hadith that related the canonization of the Quran, where the Uthmanic committee has a disagreement on how to write the word for "Ark".
Insight into loan strategies elucidates the passage.
In the Quran today the Ark of the Covenant is spelled التابوت and pronounced al-tābūt. This is a loanword from the Aramaic tēḇōṯ-ā, likely via Gəʿəz tābōt.
However, reports (which go back to Ibn Šihāb al-Zuhrī (d. 124/741-2)) tell us there was a controversy on how to spell it.
The Medinan Zayd b. Ṯābit wanted to spell it with a final hāʾ: التابوه, while his Quraši colleagues insisted it should be spelled التابوت.
They take it up with ʿUṯmān who says: the Quran was revealed in the Quraysh dialect, so it should be written according to it.
Ibn al-Bawwāb's quran, following the Classical Arabic orthography (rather than the rasm), spells ʾalif maqṣūrah before suffixes with ʾalif rather than (the Uthmanic) yāʾ. However, sometimes it does not, e.g. in Q79 here: مرساها, تخشاها, ضحاها, BUT: ذكريها. What gives? 🧵
Turns out there is a beautiful perfectly regular distribution!
The Ibn al-Bawwāb Quran is written according to the transmission of al-Dūrī from the reading of ʾAbū ʿAmr.
ʾAbū ʿAmr treats such ʾalifāt maqṣūrah is a special way. He reads them as /ā/ most of the time...
But he reads with ʾimālah, i.e. /ē/ whenever a /r/ precedes.
When the word stands in rhyme position, the /ā/ of such words is pronounced bayna lafẓay, i.e. /ǟ/.
And this distribution explains the spelling in the screenshot above, and throughout this manuscript!