#Leviticus 25:42
Israelite slavery (3)
Why can’t an indebted Israelite be treated like a slave? Because he’s already enslaved - not to another Israelite, or any other human, but to YHWH. A slave can’t have two masters, and YHWH has made his claim.
Israelite slavery (3)
Why can’t an indebted Israelite be treated like a slave? Because he’s already enslaved - not to another Israelite, or any other human, but to YHWH. A slave can’t have two masters, and YHWH has made his claim.
The basis of YHWH’s claim is simple: I took them out of Egypt, so they’re mine. They were slaves to Pharaoh, but YHWH redeemed them - in the technical sense of the word: he effectively purchased them, just with force rather than with money.
The logic here is clear: what makes Israel un-enslaveable is their having been redeemed from Egypt by YHWH. Everyone who didn’t go through that experience - everyone who isn’t Israel - isn’t subject to the same prohibition on being enslaved. (As will be clear momentarily.)
The Exodus, YHWH, the Bible - none are anti-slavery as an institution. They are, rather, anti-Israelite slavery. Which, having been written by Israelites, makes pretty good sense. But which also messes with how liberals like to read the text.
Oh, does your Bible not say “they are my slaves” in this verse? Does it say “they are my servants?” Then your translation - basically every translation - is complicit in the elision of enslaved people and the institution of slavery in the Bible and in ancient Israel.
“Servants” doesn’t even make sense here. The whole logic of the passage requires that the word mean “slave” here - as it does, I think, basically everywhere. If you didn’t realize that everywhere your Bible says “servant” it really says “slave,” well, now you do.
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