Flow 101 - Flow moves markets. If you know of a market moving flow before it hits the market or you know that a market moving flow is about to end you can make money in markets if, and this is a big if more most, you know about market moving flow and others don't. Some musings.
The best way to know about a market moving flow is to literally know before it is sent to market. There are people who became billionaires by colluding with sell side Wall Street firms who would disclose market moving orders they held from large "Boston based Fund" I saw it.
It's called Front Running and anybody who lived through the 80's and 90's can tell you stories. To this day one form or another exists. It is illegal BTW. But that's not what this thread is about. I mention it because front running is flow trading just not the illegal part.
Flow trading is the legal anticipation of order flow by examining public data. It is NOT actually knowing about order flow. That's the illegal part. I have thoughts on what may happen in $TSLA due to Elons selling but I do not "Know" if he's selling today.
I have thoughts on what @JPMorganAM will do to roll their collar but I don't "know". The information about the actual order is unknown until it hits the market. Flow trading is anticipating the flow through examining various patterns in public data. Get it. Good. Moving on.
The number one mistake when predicting flow is being one sided in your thinking. A naive soul at BNP was quoted in Barton's over the weekend that 1TN of equities need to be sold and 1TN of bonds needs to be bought to rebalance global portfolios. Does anyone see the issue?
Let's ignore price for the moment. Let's assume that could magically happen without a price change. All of the sellers of stocks/buyers of bonds would be back in some rote historic balance. But who bought/sold? What would their balance be?
The global market portfolio at this very second is by and large at equilibrium thats why the price is what it is for every global asset. Every asset is owned by someone. At the margin someone covets that asset and wants to buy and someone who owns that asset is ready to sell.
Now some important things to consider in predicting flow. First, who needs to change their position and why. The motivated seller (let's say). Must pay a concession (lower price) if they want to motivate a buyer. Note: after the trade the seller has cash and the buyer needs cash
Post trade now the seller uses the cash to buy something, either another asset 🧐, payoff debt (that's another asset to someone) or consume. Post trade the buyer needs to borrow, (that's a new asset for someone) of sell an asset. The motivation of the original sale is absorbed
Second what is motivation. This motivation is critical as the strength of motivation defines the willingness to accept price concessions to get out. The level of price inelasticity is at play.
The Fed is entirely price inelastic when buying QE bonds. They accept what is offered. The US Treasury is price inelastic at auctions. They accept what is bid. Elon Musk has some elasticity to sell his 10% but it's coming for sale this year. He can play games to get a price but.
The order is on the desk. Tax planning generates uneconomic decisions for the general investor but strong motivation for individual tax payers. Portfolio rebalancing is a decision. If it is triggered by specific rules and investor mandates it generates predictable inelastic flow
We all watched $TSLA a year ago yesterday. When index funds by rule must buy a new constituent that is inelastic flow. See red circle
What are some other inelastic flows. Intraday stop losses, margin calls, levered investor blow ups due to performance. Are often violent motivated selling. Vol targeting funds shifting their vol, hard benchmark investing rebalancing at month end, CTA' momentum models pivoting.
Performance chasing, soft rebalancing, negative performance redemption flows. These are all flavors of predictable flows. Some that are optimized to minimize concessions paid others that are highly inelastic.
When studying each of these flows it's also important to evaluate the level of elasticity on the other side of the trade. Perhaps an inelastic flow on the big side matches. Wow no price impact no concession either way. Perhaps money and credit is tight making it difficult
For the other side to buy without a big price concession. Perhaps money and credit is easy and lots of capital is deployed to find forced selling and get paid the concession. Perhaps people have predicted the coming flow and now are dependent on it coming or they will become
Inelastic buyers. They call this situation a short squeeze. It is complicated.
Process.
Predict an inelastic flow based on a trigger
Predict the size of that flow
Predict what flexibility and what games the player can do to get done
Predict the conditions of the other side of the trade.
It is also useful to predict long term flow. But that's another thread. But in addressing the 1TN needing to be sold by year end. That is naive. There is no trigger. The global portfolio is becoming more long equity for many not changing reasons. 60/40 is not a trigger.
Trading short or long based on a soft trigger such as this is not going to deliver alpha. It is worth studying how the market portfolio will evolve and what is rich/cheap but TBC no professional without a hard benchmark is going to dump equities and BUY BONDS and pay to do it
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Us naive Americans dont think about currency returns as part of our portfolios as we have the biggest and for decades best place to invest in equities.
Every other global investor cares about currency returns at basic level for their investing
The basic idea for investors or all nationalities should be simple and obvious to all. But we Americans just haven't had to care. Maybe we still don't but at least we should be aware. This 101 will explain what is obvious to all non Americans and then show how it works
The goal of all investors is simple. We want to maximize the risk adjusted return of our investments in the currency we expect to spend in the future.
As Americans we want to maximize our USD returns
If we are Japanese we want to maximize our Yen returns
Money creation and credit creation in the private sector 101 part 2.
Role of Repo.
In the prior thread I outline credit creation which can happen without banks and money creation which requires banks.
I also hinted at bank reserves role as being one of grease to the
system and NOT necessary for bank money creation but necessary for interbank deposit shifts. I also didn't discuss base money creation from the Fed and won't be dealing with that in this thread either.
Here I will discuss the specific role of Repo in today's financial system
The big takeaway is it is one of many important and necessary means of credit creation AND it has no role in money creation unless a bank is a party to the transaction.
That will take some weedy mechanics to prove. But before we do that let's talk about the entire economy
Money creation and credit creation in the private sector 101
There has been a lot of focus on the repo market lately. I get it. It's an important part of the capital markets in the credit creation process. But its growth and contraction is part of the credit creation process
The repo market where transactions are between hedge funds and money market investors, and those who desire leverage for whatever purpose is an important market in the credit creation process BUT is not part of the money creation process UNLESS a commercial bank or the Fed is
A party to the transaction. Because this is largely misunderstood by even some plumbing experts it's worth it for me to write out my understanding (maybe im wrong which would be awesome so I can learn). So here I go.
I've been studying various versions of balance sheet expansions over my career. I'd classify them as
Japanese first failed effort
UK's version
U.S. Version 1
U.S. version 2
ECB version
Japanese all in version 2
They are all fairly different in approach. The big takeaway 🧵
The developing Fed version that most are excited about is most akin to the Japanese first failed effort.
Here's a rough summary of each
In 2001-2006 Japan the BOJ initiated QE. In their version they offered significant lending to the Japanese banking system for good collateral
The balance sheet doubled in size at a pace of 35 Tn yen per year. However of that 35tn only 5 was direct asset purchase and most of that was Japanese Tbills. This is very similar to the BTFP program from SVB time and the current SRF. It was also sorta similar to ECB LTRO
Why do repo rates change and what do they have to do with reserves. This is a super technical issue and there are better folks to follow on this topic than me but I'll give it a go.
Firstly what are the two sides of a repo transaction and why do they want to interact.
One side is a guy with a bank deposit he wants to earn interest on. The other is a guy who wants to borrow money overnight and has assets he owns that he is willing to provide as collateral to the loan. We can go down a level on each side but for now let's keep it simple.
Most repo transactions are done with UST as the collateral and most UST collatarel used is TBills but. UST's are also highly common collateral but do to the marked to market risk they offer less borrowing capacity per unit of notional (higher haircut)
Some thoughts on 10 year notes since Powell guided for a restart of the cutting cycle at Jackson Hole. Trying to answer what the bond market is saying
Nominal yields have fallen 33bp
Note yields are driven lower by
1)Falling real GDP expectations
2)Falling Inflation expectations 3) Falling "risk" of owning assets 4) Improving supply/demand balance vs expectations.
In attributing nominal yield changes to these 4 things unfortunately market prices don't
Easily demonstrate these things. For instance 3&4 are only able to be measured via a model which estimates risk premiums or the expected return over holding cash
Even Breakeven inflation and real TIPS yields have risk premium buried in there market yields. However we can try