So many questions arise. Do the Central Asian terms go back to Avestan
Old Persian or Parthian?
Can we really argue for a Mesopotamian origin (Babylonian or otherwise) of any part of the festival when its more ancient name was used across Asia?
Did Nowruz (possibly Avestan navaka raocah) exist alongside Navasarda?
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when Mary Boyce wrote (Iranica article) and others write things like "Nowruz" isn't mentioned in Avesta & Old Persian, do they mean they also checked for Navasarda & its variants?
We would NOT expect to find "Nowruz" in Old Persian or Avestan. We also know big parts
of Avesta were likely lost. So this argument from absence is weaker than even the regular argument from absence.
In short, I think more research on Navasard/Navasarda is needed.
I wonder when @Simcha_Gross refers to Talmud, would that have been written 3-6 C CE?
If so, can we infer that "Nowruz" started being used in mid to late Sasanian era? And indeed "Navasard" in this form existed in Parsig?
Or is it from a Parthian background?
I may have missed it, but I couldn't find any papers on these issues. 🙏🌸
I'm getting excited here... using logic:
If A) Navasard could not be from Sasanian era (unless same term was used in its historical way?), and in any event Sasanians did not hold Sogdiana for long enough & Central Asian terms are different in pronunciation
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and B) Parthians' rule likely did not extent, at all, to Sogdiana, & even during Achaemenid rule, Sogdiana was fairly independent & different in various ways, including language, clothing etc.
Can we conclude variations of term Navasard in Central Asia are from Avestan root?
This can be the "evidence" we're looking for re how ancient this celebration is, and possibly its Avestan form, even if the term hasn't survived in what has come down to us in this very ancient language 🌸🌼💐🌺
Also see original thread on history of term #Nowruz itself. In this thread I'm focusing instead on likely earlier term Nausard/ Nava Sarda
Generally, we see great continuity in various aspects of Nowruz celebrations. We can say it was, like other feasts & major celebrations, about preparing for the feast & with very ancient Indo-Iranian roots
Like other feasts, there was merriment & food, as there is today
Numerous later sources link it to the Indo-Iranian figure/king Jamshid/ Yima
Unfortunately it does not appear that scholars like @sasanianshah have sufficiently considered the origin of Nowruz.
If we require evidence for hypotheses, I have no issue if some evidence
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is provided linking this celebration with Babylonian calendars. Otherwise, it's pure conjecture.
It's true that some ideas could have been borrowed from other nations throughout time, but Nowruz' origins appear to be in Central-northern Asia & predate Iranians' migrations
Video: Recreation of an Elamite harp. I talked about Iranian musical instruments before, but will focus on the harp, used in Iranian music for thousands of years until the 17th C, and now being brought back by various musicians
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Recreation of harp from Choga Mish, Iran, 6800 BCE
Don't just compare #Cyrus the Great (کوروش بزرگ
; 𐎤𐎢𐎽𐎢𐏁) to rulers before him
This is not a convenient fact, so it's is ignored by modern authors: Compare him to what came after:
Romans had no issues destroying what there was in Britain, Germany...: old beliefs...
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See e.g., Boudican revolt.
Centuries later authors had to invent the magical world of "western civilization" by connecting Greece to Rome, Rome to various parts of the world. Now it's basically skin color & religion that connect such widely different cultures in
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Hungary to Scotland, But can't let Turkey into EU cause they're not Christian & white enough!
Arabs had no issues force converting Egyptians, Central Asians... to Islam, and forcing people to speak Arabic in various places. They didn't need to write a cylinder to pretend!
Or how history is rewritten. A few points. This is not a "nationalist" or reactionary post. I want to rationally point to double standards in the "west"
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Much has been written about both of these documents. The analogy is not perfect, no analogy and no analogical reasoning is.
But one cannot help recognize a very different modern take on these two documents.
1) Magna Carta is called "The Foundation of Freedom"
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"The Birth of Liberty" etc., even a New Yorker article points out these are purely modern and positive spins on this document: