Did volatility go up or down today? 101. Easy question? Not really. I will keep it as simple as possible. There are many great vol guys to give a better answer on here, But here goes. The symbol most use for vol is $VIX
$VIX fell a lot and made a new year low. It also made a post COVID low
Don't use $VIX. Never use VIX. It is not tradable and on Friday's it is always pressed down more than it "should" be and always pressed up more than it "should" be on Monday. Use front month VIX Futures. This sub thread explains it.
Okay so use VIX futures. Let's use the most liquid front month symbol $VXMM23 Bloomberg code UX1. It fell too but hasn't yet made a new low.
So we're done right. VIX Futures fell vol was down today. Not so fast. Whenever the market rises VIX and VIX futures fall with high correlation of 72%
Why is that? Well you might think it's because in a rally people sell their hedges and markets are more confident and all sorts of other fundamental reasons. But mostly it's just mechanical. Stay with me because this is where the math comes in.
**Let's start by looking at the implied volatility of options with strikes ranging from 90% of Spot to 110%. Notice how the IV drops from the left to the middle bottoms around 102.5% and starts going up as you go right. This is an example of skew called a Smirk 😏 vs one you see
In other markets called a smile 😀 Risky assets tend to have a smirk. Anyway enough about emojis. Let's put a particular strike on a couple. Let's say the IV of 99 strike is 16 the IV of the 100% strike is 15.5 and the 101 is 15.
Now let's not use percentages and instead use actual strikes. The 4240 strike is the 99
4280 is the 100
4320 is the 101. Jeez we are close to the JHEQX collar. Anyhow. Let's assume the market rallied from 4240 to 4280 today.
What does VIX measure roughly. It measures the 100% strike IV.
Now let's think about market participants who traded the 4240 put which yesterday was at 16 IV. There was a buyer and a seller at the IV for that option. Similarly there was a buyer and seller of the 4280 at 15.5
Both sides of each strike have no particular reason to change their view on IV of the option they bought just because the market moved a paltry 1%. So the 4240 strike IV stays at 16 and the 4280 stays at 15.5. BUT wait the vix changed its reference strike from 4240 to 4280
It reports the ATM vol fell 50bp. But no actual options IV changed at all!!! All that happened is the reference atm vol rolled higher. The slope of that graph above is literally the mechanical reason that VIX Fell and the correlation between VIX and SPX is so strongly negative.
See. Just because VIX (or vix futures for that matter) fell does not mean vol fell.
Okay go back up to the ** tweet and do loop until you understand.
Okay you understand and are out of the infinite loop. Time to label this. It's called sticky strike vol. when you measure vol
Based on moneyness like 100% moneyness that VIX has you miss the skew effect. But you do get information to. For instance if a market moves up and VIX (Sticky moneyness) doesn't fall that's a big deal because it means vol has actually risen on specific strike options and
Market participants are making and losing money on vol. What happened in the last day to stick moneyness vol. The red line is yesterday the white is today. Looks like stick strike dominated and vol was essential mechanical lower for ATM
Of course it's way more complicated and the best participants keep strike IV changes to see if vol is rising or falling. But you at home can plot this very roughly. The correlation of VIX to SPX changes is 72%.
Regressing VIX changes to SPX changes with a long history gives a coefficient of -4.6. That means a 1% change in SPX price roughly means a -4.6% change in VIX level. Now that coefficient depends on the skew today. A better way would be to look at the vol of the 99/101
And you can tell what VIX should read if we move up or down 1% the after the day is over you can see if the vix was up or down after correcting for rolling up or down the skew.
Then and only then can you come close to answering the question. FWIW vol was up today!
When my friends @Jimmyjude13 or @jam_croissant talk about market up vol up and you see vix down now you know what they are talking about.
BTW the correlation of Weekly and Monthly Vix Changes vs SPX changes is 70 and 69 respectively
This is partly just the simple fact that smirk is consistently part of options pricing. Do people who buy Vix Options know this?🤔
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I've been studying various versions of balance sheet expansions over my career. I'd classify them as
Japanese first failed effort
UK's version
U.S. Version 1
U.S. version 2
ECB version
Japanese all in version 2
They are all fairly different in approach. The big takeaway 🧵
The developing Fed version that most are excited about is most akin to the Japanese first failed effort.
Here's a rough summary of each
In 2001-2006 Japan the BOJ initiated QE. In their version they offered significant lending to the Japanese banking system for good collateral
The balance sheet doubled in size at a pace of 35 Tn yen per year. However of that 35tn only 5 was direct asset purchase and most of that was Japanese Tbills. This is very similar to the BTFP program from SVB time and the current SRF. It was also sorta similar to ECB LTRO
Why do repo rates change and what do they have to do with reserves. This is a super technical issue and there are better folks to follow on this topic than me but I'll give it a go.
Firstly what are the two sides of a repo transaction and why do they want to interact.
One side is a guy with a bank deposit he wants to earn interest on. The other is a guy who wants to borrow money overnight and has assets he owns that he is willing to provide as collateral to the loan. We can go down a level on each side but for now let's keep it simple.
Most repo transactions are done with UST as the collateral and most UST collatarel used is TBills but. UST's are also highly common collateral but do to the marked to market risk they offer less borrowing capacity per unit of notional (higher haircut)
Some thoughts on 10 year notes since Powell guided for a restart of the cutting cycle at Jackson Hole. Trying to answer what the bond market is saying
Nominal yields have fallen 33bp
Note yields are driven lower by
1)Falling real GDP expectations
2)Falling Inflation expectations 3) Falling "risk" of owning assets 4) Improving supply/demand balance vs expectations.
In attributing nominal yield changes to these 4 things unfortunately market prices don't
Easily demonstrate these things. For instance 3&4 are only able to be measured via a model which estimates risk premiums or the expected return over holding cash
Even Breakeven inflation and real TIPS yields have risk premium buried in there market yields. However we can try
SPX has a trailing earnings yield of 4% with expected 1 year earnings growth of 11.7%. What's the bull case? For me the bull case is a combination of simply collecting the earnings accrual
and having the multiple expand slightly. In that case a 16% return would occur which is roughly 1 std higher and happens 1 out of 6 timer.
The big driver of equity returns is the accrual of earnings. Over the last 5 years earnings accrual has dominated historic returns
As long as companies continue to grow earnings they will go up over the long term.
Multiples rise and fall and as can be seen in the chart can dominate performance of equities in the short term. Furthermore multiples are impacted by interest rates
I YR return Asset bull cases part 1a
10 Year notes
10 year notes yield 4% today. What's the bull case? Let's talk about an unusually good absolute return that would happen 1 in 6 times this year meaning 1STD or more. That would be a 6% price rise Along with a 6% price move
One would also get a 4% coupon generating a 10% return and an excess return over cash of 6.5%. That's pretty good and could be leveraged 2.5x to have the same risk as SPX and generate 16.25% return.
What would that mean mechanically?
A 6% price move would require 9 year yields which are roughly 3.95% to be 3.22
A year from now.
The bull case for bonds depends on whether the odds of 3.22% yields occuring is 1:6. If the odds are higher the bonds are a buy if lower then bonds are a sell.
By far the most important one is they become insolvent
An insolvent company has negative equity. Its assets are worth less than its debt. For a bank the largest debtor is the depositor but other debtors exist as well.
Banks risk insolvency due to higher leverage of their equity relative to any other non financial company
Bank assets are also subject to sudden repricing when the loans and securities banks own default or like in the "Banking Crisis of 2023" the assets reprice rapidly due to a change in the risk free interest rate.