France used to be the "China of Europe"—1 in 25 people globally was French and 1 in 5 Europeans was French.
Now, France is smaller than Germany and virtually identical in population to Britain
Why?
Thanks to some wonderful new work, we probably know the answer!🧵
The answer has to do with secularization: if your faith says to be fruitful and multiply while its secular replacement does not, it's reasonable to expect fertility to fall.
We can observe this secularization through the rapid decline of religious wills and perpetual masses.
As this secularization spread, fertility declined.
And we know it was secularization that drove the dates in which areas began the demographic transition, not increased human capital, population density, or urbanization.
More tests support this.
For example, it stands to reason that more religious people need more clergymen.
Well, the greater the population-weighted share of clergymen in an area, the greater its fertility, but only after secularization set in and religiosity variance emerged.
And we know part of why secularization kicked off, too.
Consider this: as in America with tea, France also had a horribly unpopular tax on foodstuffs: the gabelle, a tax on salt.
This tax was actually a part of the cahiers de doléance during the French Revolution.
This tax varied wildly, so its extent can be used to assess how extractive institutions were.
To understand how, we need one more piece of history: the Counter Reformation.
See the dashed lines in France?
Those were disputed during the French Wars of Religion.
In those places where the Counter Reformation was dominant during the French Wars of Religion, there's more modern Easter mass attendance.
But, there's actually *less* if there was evidence that the counter-reformers led extractive institutions, as indicated by the gabelle.
Secularization was likely partly a backlash against cruel, absolutist, "divine right" monarchy.
You know, the sort that inspired this image of the Third Estate bearing the nation's tax burdens.
This matters!
In this time period, Britain grew their economy and population simultaneously, catching up to France in population.
France instead enriched its population through constraining its size.
The per capita GDPs in each country became virtually identical.
In other words, Britain became rich by growing the numerator more than the denominator; France just constrained the denominator.
The convergence of France and Britain is truly remarkable.
Imagine the world where French growth during the Industrial Revolution mirrors Britain's.
In such a world, the lingua franca might still be "Franca".
This research directly militates against modern blood libel.
If people knew, for example, that Black and White men earned the same amounts on average at the same IQs, they would likely be a lot less convinced by basically-false discrimination narratives blaming Whites.
Add in that the intelligence differences cannot be explained by discrimination—because there *is* measurement invariance—and these sorts of findings are incredibly damning for discrimination-based narratives of racial inequality.
So, said findings must be condemned, proscribed.
The above chart is from the NLSY '79, but it replicates in plenty of other datasets, because it is broadly true.
For example, here are three independent replications:
A lot of the major pieces of civil rights legislation were passed by White elites who were upset at the violence generated by the Great Migration and the riots.
Because of his association with this violence, most people at the time came to dislike MLK.
It's only *after* his death, and with his public beatification that he's come to enjoy a good reputation.
This comic from 1967 is a much better summation of how the public viewed him than what people are generally taught today.
And yes, he was viewed better by Blacks than by Whites.
But remember, at the time, Whites were almost nine-tenths of the population.
Near his death, Whites were maybe one-quarter favorable to MLK, and most of that favorability was weak.
The researcher who put together these numbers was investigated and almost charged with a crime for bringing these numbers to light when she hadn't received permission.
Greater Male Variability rarely makes for an adequate explanation of sex differences in performance.
One exception may be the number of papers published by academics.
If you remove the top 7.5% of men, there's no longer a gap!
The disciplines covered here were ones with relatively equal sex ratios: Education, Nursing & Caring Science, Psychology, Public Health, Sociology, and Social Work.
Because these are stats on professors, this means that if there's greater male variability, it's mostly right-tail
Despite this, the very highest-performing women actually outperformed the very highest-performing men on average, albeit slightly.
The percentiles in this image are for the combined group, so these findings coexist for composition reasons.