I think it's important to situate the Genocide Convention and South Africa's case within socio-legal context in which they operate. I think it will help explain the dissonance between people's excitement at South Africa's arguments and my more cautious view🧵
For starters, we talk about how difficult it is to prove "intent". This is not "natural". It is the result of political processes that made genocide difficult to prove. I've said before: genocide is common; findings of genocide are not. That's not "good"
Genocide is how the world order was (is) created. Most national foundational myths involve genocide. US's "Wild West", Argentina's "Conquest of the Dessert", European "mission civilisatrice" - all genocide. (And all would be hard to prove under the Genocide Convention)
This is bc when the term "genocide" was created states were careful to make sure it would cover the Holocaust (and now Rwanda), but not Jim Crow, and not colonialism in Africa, etc. Only the most obvious genocides could be genocide, not my national mythos!
So this brings us to South Africa's case. It needs to prove that genocide is the "only reasonable inference" from Israel's actions. This is difficult no matter what, because, like South Africa said in its presentation, most genocides are not pre-announced and advertised
This is why Israel made sure today to argue that 1) its genocidal statements were misconstrued and 2) it is taking measures to safeguard civilian wellbeing. It specifically asked "would a genocidal state would go to these lenghts if what it wanted was to destroy the group?"
So, South Africa's job is more difficult than just saying "look, just *look* at what's happening". It needs to convince the Court to deduce this intent from the overall context of the operation. That even these humanitarian measures are part of the genocide
In essence that if you know that 2 million people are starving and you knowingly give them insufficient food/water, while your soldiers kill them on sight and bomb them in "safe places", then you should conclude that your intent is to destroy them despite these measures
But is that the "only reasonable inference"? Israel will argue it is not. At some point, if it gets desperate, it may even concede that the other reasonable inference is an intent to comit war crimes, but not genocide - that is enough: there is no jurisdiction for war crimes...
This is why South Africa has also claimed Israel is not trying to prevent its soldiers from comitting genocide or punishing its officials who incite genocide. Because Israel winning the main claim sort of means Israel will lose the other two
Of course, there is a scenario where South Africa prevails. But it is not a scenario a colonial and Eurocentric international law was created for. South Africa's case is sort of subversive of the sysem in this way
To be clear: this is not bc ICJ Judges are just realpolitik agents of their states. They are serious competent jurists. But they do operate within the socio-legal context of an int'l law that conceives genocide a "once in a lifetime" crime that ought to be very difficult to prove
Int'l law is not an "even playing field", not because there is any kind of conspiracy, but because it was born out of colonialist principles, not to enable liberation. South Africa is challenging this, and they may succeed, but they don't have it "in the bag"
So I guess, don't be pessimistic, but be cautiously hopeful rather than confident
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Thread of Islamophobic and still un-community-noted tweets calling the AfD-supporting, Greater-Israel-advocate atheist attacker an “Islamist” and/or blaming all Muslims for his crimes.🧵
This thread is making the rounds, so let's test it. Why is it problematic to craft a standard so narrow that it concludes there was no genocide in Croatia/Gaza? Well, let's apply it to something we know was a genocide and see where we land. Let's imagine it's Germany in mid 1941
I don't think I need to convince you that The Holocaust was a genocide. It obviously was. It is the paradigmatic genocide. But where we may find some disagreement is *when* - when did the Holocaust become a genocide?
If you're like me, and you define genocid *broadly*, you'd say as early as 1935 with the Nuremberg Laws. If genocide is, to quote Lemkin, "the destruction of the national pattern of the oppressed group", then it was these laws that made it impossible to be collectively "Jewish"
Many are asking me what is a “Platt Amendment”, so here it goes.
After the 1898 Spanish-American War, the US ended up occupying Cuba. They did not want to annex it, because cheap Cuban sugar was bad for Colorado’s sugar beets industry, so the Senate came up with a compromise 🧵
The US would not annex Cuba and end its occupation on condition that the new independent Cuban republic amended its constitution to specifically state the following:
“That the government of Cuba consents that the United States may exercise the right to intervene for the preservation of Cuban independence, the maintenance of a government adequate for the protection of life, property, and individual liberty (…)”.
The result was the incorporation of Cuba into a form of US suzerainty. It marked the beginning decades of US imperialism in the Caribbean. By 1904, Roosevelt declared that the US would be the region’s “police man”, saying:
“Chronic wrongdoing, or an impotence which results in a general loosening of the ties of civilized society, may in America, as elsewhere, ultimately require intervention by some civilized nation, and in the Western Hemisphere the adherence of the United Sates to the Monroe Doctrine may force the United States, however reluctantly, in flagrant cases of such wrongdoing or impotence, to the exercise of an international police power”.
This is an incredibly racist worldview. It essentialises Muslims into a single category (“the dominators”) against the overwhelming evidence that Israel’s own security actually depends on Muslim allies like Jordan, Egypt, the Gulf states
It also discriminates against Muslim Israelis who are looked down as receiving the favour of rights in a non-Muslim state. Democracy is based on the idea that human rights protect minorities from the dictatorship of the majority, not on the mercy of the democratic dictators
It discriminates against Palestinians by erasing their own struggle for survival as they are killed by the tens of thousands and starved by the millions. They are rendered “potential dominators” that must be contained by the supposed democracy of apartheid
Tracking state reactions to the ICC Arrest Warrants against Netanyahu, Gallant, & Deif 🧵
Methodology notes:
Except for key actors (Israel, Palestine, US) I will only track MFA, HoS and HoG statements.
Simple retweets of the ICC press release are not counted
Hen likes to portray himself as the friendly face of genocide denial, which is why him joining the talking point du jour, about the CIA estimating population growth in Gaza as proof there is no genocide, is rather out of character. It is a really bad & violent argument 🧵
Hen doesn’t specifically say it, but the claim is there between the lines: “if population grew, there can’t be a genocide under way”. This is of course patently false from the definition of genocide alone. Population decrease is simply not part of it
In fact, only one item of the definition (item a) could potentially lead to population decrease. Items b, c, d, and e can be carried out without any impact on population growth. What’s more, they can be committed without a single person dying. Genocide ≠ mass killing