Some thoughts on Q 9:30, which asserts that “Jews say ‘ʿUzayr [?] is the son of God’ & Christians say ‘Christ is the son of God’.”
Most scholars take ʿUzayr to be Ezra, but he is not known as a son of God in the Jewish tradition.
Can the noun refer to the Jewish Messiah?
1/11
This idea occurred to me last year in the light of Q 5:78, which claims: “the unbelievers from the Children of Israel were cursed on the tongue of 𝗗𝗮𝘃𝗶𝗱 and Jesus son of Mary.”
Why David?
An earlier verse that denounces those who divinized Jesus may furnish a clue.
2/11
Jesus came to be considered the son of God or/and God partly because he was identified with the Davidic Messiah/King, who is described as the son of God or as divine in some biblical texts.
3/11
So, perhaps Q 5:78 mentions David to claim that he rejected those who considered him or a messiah/king from his descendants the son of God or divine.
But while Christians had a concrete messiah, Jews also hoped for one, and sometimes termed him the son of God.
4/11
So, perhaps Q 9:30 denounces both Jews and Christians for a similar claim, namely, that their respective messiah figures are “the son of God.”
But the name ʿUzayr is not a messianic title.
One solution is to opt for ʿ𝑎𝑧𝑖̄𝑧, which can mean prince/ruler.
5/11
Qur’an 12:78 uses ʿ𝑎𝑧𝑖̄𝑧 for Joseph as ruler of Egypt.
Similar titles are used for the Davidic king/messiah in the Bible & beyond (also hinted at: ).
Even the root ʿ-z-z is used in this context in Rabbinic literature (I owe this to a colleague)!
Even the root ʿ-z-r itself can convey strength: ʿ𝑎𝑧𝑧𝑎𝑟𝑎 means “to strengthen/help” in Q 5:12, so it’s not impossible to read ʿ𝑢𝑧𝑎𝑦𝑟 in the sense of someone aided or strengthened by God (or promised strength/aid from God).
8/11
Maybe some Jews used ʿ𝑎𝑧𝑖̄𝑧 / ʿ𝑎𝑧𝑖̄𝑟 for the messiah—to avoid using 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑖̄ℎ̣ b/c of its Christian associations?—and Qur’an chose its the diminutive form polemically?
But as a colleague pointed out, we would expect the definite 𝑎𝑙-ʿ𝑎𝑧𝑖̄𝑧, not ʿ𝑎𝑧𝑖̄𝑧.
9/11
Alternatively, one can perhaps still work with Ezra but consider Q 9:30 to reflect his hypothetical identification with Enoch and the latter’s identification as the Son of Man?
*Screenshots from Peter Schäfer’s Two Gods in Heaven
10/11
This is of course all very speculative.
But if the Qur’an consciously counter messianism (as argued skillfully by @GhaffarZishan), perhaps Q 9:30 is another part of that anti-messianic discourse--one that counters both Jewish and Christian messianism.
11/11
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1/11 Is islām ever the name of a distinct religion in the Qur’an?
Those who think so often cite the following:
“dīn with God is islām” (Q 3:19)
“whoever seeks a dīn other than islām, it will not be accepted of him” (Q 3:85)
But I think these texts simply insist on monotheism.
2/11 In the Qur’an, islām’s basic meaning is “giving all” (not “submission”), namely, giving all of one’s worship to Allāh—AKA monotheistic worship. x.com/MohsenGT/statu…
And dīn mostly means “worship” (not “religion”), sometimes “recompense.” x.com/MohsenGT/statu…
3/11 If dīn mostly means “worship” and islām signifies “monotheistic worship,” then “dīn with God is islām” means “[proper] worship with God is monotheistic worship.”
Not “[true] religion with God is Islam” or “[true] religion with God is submission.”
1/10 What is the difference between islām & īmān—or between aslama & āmana, mentioned in Q 49:14–17?
TL;DR: islām means to accept monotheistic worship, manifest in ṣalāt & zakāt. This should not be conflated with genuine faith, which is manifest in readiness to fight for God.
2/10 As I have argued, in the Qur’an dīn generally means “worship” (instead of “religion”) and islām denotes “monotheistic worship” (literally, “complete devotion [of one’s worship & self to Allāh]”).
But what did it mean in practice to embrace islām?
3/10 Some qur’anic texts (Q 9:11) & historical narratives suggest that ṣalāt & zakāt were the most fundamental signs of showcasing adherence to monotheistic worship.
ṣalāt was a matter of cultic alignment.
zakāt meant recognizing the Prophet’s fiscal and political authority.
@Oneubon4563 Thank you for writing a thoughtful and substantive thread (which would have been even better if the tone was less categorical and dismissive!). I'll say a few things here but hope to respond to some of your points more fully later.
@Oneubon4563 1) If we understand islam as exclusive worship, that doesn't make it unrelated to prophecy/scripture. In fact, I think Q 3 links them explicitly. It suggests that if some People of the Book reject the Prophet, it's because they have deviated from strict monotheism.
@Oneubon4563 2) So, to borrow your language, proper monotheism to God entails "obedience to the prophets and holy books."
2/15 For example, Q 3:79-80 asserts that a prophet (like Jesus) would never ask people to serve him or other beings instead of God. “Would he command you to disbelieve after you have been 𝘮𝘶𝘴𝘭𝘪𝘮?” The point is that Israelites were monotheists (𝘮𝘶𝘴𝘭𝘪𝘮) before Jesus ...
3/15 ... and that it would be strange to claim that Jesus asked them to worship him and thus to abandon proper monotheism after God had inspired and commissioned him.
Translating 𝘮𝘶𝘴𝘭𝘪𝘮 as “submitter” misses the force of the text’s argument.
1/14 “There is no compulsion in religion”
This is a common translation of the beginning of Q 2:256
I prefer: “There is no oppression in the worship [of God]” (cf. Q 22:78)
Meaning, serving God is not subjugation to arbitrary might; it is doing what is right & to our own benefit.
2/14 I have argued that dīn in the Qur’an means “service” or “worship,” not “religion”
In early Arabic texts outside the Qur’an, dīn and the verb dāna sometimes refer to the “service” that subjects owe their king.
3/14 A king’s subjects had to pay him tribute. They had to fight for him if he asked & accept his diktats, even those they loathed. If they refused obedience, they could die. Effectively, a king’s subjects were his slaves.
1/11 It is difficult to escape the gravitational pull of some core ideas.
One is that dīn means “religion” in the Qur’an.
This is doubtful.
I think dīn usually means “worship.”
The difference is subtle but the implications are profound.
2/11 For example, Q 3:83 wonders if some Christians seek something other than “dīn Allāh.”
Does this mean some Christians went beyond "the religion of God" to seek another “religion”?
Or does it mean some Christians went beyond "the worship of God" in their worship?
3/11 Another case: Q 5:57 declares that some People of the Book made fun of the Believers' dīn.
Did they mock the Believers' "religion" in general?
Or did they mock the Believers' "worship," in particular, their Ka'ba-focused rituals?