In my book "Quranic Arabic" I argue that if you look closely at the Quranic rasm you can deduce that the text has been composed in Hijazi Arabic (and later classicized into more mixed forms in the reading traditions). Can we identify dialects in poetry?
I think this is possible to some extent, yes. And so far this has really not been done at all. Most of the time people assume complete linguistic uniformity in the poetry, and don't really explore it further.
But there are a number of rather complex issues to contend with:
As @Quranic_Islam already identified, there are some philological problems that get in the way in poetry that aren't there for the Quran: I would not trust a hamzah being written in a written down poem. This might be classicization. So it's hard to test for this Hijazi isogloss.
To learn anything at all, we would have to examine cases that affect the metre.
yaʾkulu and yākulu are metrically identical,
but yasʾal (HH) and yasal (LH) are metrically distinct, so you can see the loss of hamzah there.
Similarly saʾaltu (LHL) sāltu (HH)
Syllable structure, on the other hand is something we have *excellent* access to in poetry. You can easily show of a poem has wa-huwa (Hijazi) or wa-hwa (Najdi). There is however a problem: poetry, even if composed by a Hijazi cannot help but be unhijazi...
Why? Well because Hijazi syllable structure constantly creates sequences that do not fit in any poetic metre. Even something as basic as rusulunā "our messengers" has the impossible LLL sequence, and would therefore always take on the Najdi form ruslunā (HLH).
Vowels, like with the Quran, are extremely difficult to deduce. But, Poetry is rhymed, and the rhyme is sometimes multi-syllabic so we can at least learn something about vowel quality in the rhyme position.
We can learn if a certain poem has a distinction between /ē/ and /ā/.
Morphology that is metrically distinct can be discerned as well. Hijazi ḏālika (HLL) and hāḏihī (HLH) are clearly distinct from Najdi ḏāka (HL) and hāḏī (HH).
The problem is: poets noticed this too, and happily latch onto both forms whenever it is metrically convenient.
So poems will frequently have both in a single poem, sometimes even lines apart. It is worth stressing how different this is from the Quran, where ḏāka and hāḏī are totally unheard of. The Quran consistently has the Hijazi form, poetry frequently mixes its forms.
So the structure of poetry makes it conducive to including more forms that are not strictly native to the poet's dialect. So if one were to do any type of study like this, it would have to be a more statistical based approach:
Poet A is more likely to do X than poet B, and this makes sense because feature X is part of tribe C which Poet A belongs to.
For anything non-impressionistic to come out of this, you need to have a lot of data, dutifully collected and tagged in a way that is sensible.
You probably also need to be good at making sense of pre-Islamic poetry, which I'm absolutely not!
A couple of years ago @azforeman presented a great paper highlighting some of the linguistic variation, and his current research also focuses on the language of poetry...
I don't know if his approach will specifically try to address these questions. But I'm sure we'll come closer to having an insight into these questions once the PhD thesis is done. :-) Perhaps he's interested in following up with some of his own thoughts on the matter.
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Last year I was asked to give a talk at the NISIS Autumn School about the textual history of the Quran. Here's a thread summarizing the points of that presentation. Specifically the presentation addresses some of Shoemaker's new objections on the Uthmanic canonization.
Traditionally, the third caliph ʿUṯmān is believed to have standardized the text.
However, in critical scholarship of the '70s the historicity of this view came to be questioned.
How can we really be sure that what the tradition tells us is correct?
This skepticism wasn't wholly unwarranted at the time. The Uthmanic canonization really had been uncritically accepted, not based on any material evidence.
But we now have access to many manuscripts, beautifully digitized, we can test the historicity of these claims!
The canonical Kufan readers Ḥamzah and al-Kisāʾī read the word ʾumm "mother" or ʾummahāt "mothers" with a kasrah whenever -ī or -i precedes, e.g.:
Q43:4 fī ʾimmi l-kitābi
Q39:6/Q53:32 fī buṭūni ʾimma/ihātikum
This seems random, but there is a general pattern here! 🧵
This feature was explained al-Farrāʾ in a lengthy discussion at the start of his Maʿānī. This makes sense: al-Farrāʾ was al-Kisāʾī's student who in turn was Ḥamzah's. Surprisingly in "The Iconic Sībawayh" Brustad is under the misapprehension that this is not a canonical variant.
This is irregular, such a vowel harmony does not occur in cases with other words that starts with ʾu-. For example, Q13:30 is just fī ʾummatin, not **fī ʾimmatin.
However this irregular reading is part of a larger pattern of vowel harmony accross guttural consonants.
Those who have read my book on Quranic Arabic may have noticed that I translate The Arabic word luġah as "linguistic practice", rather than "dialect" which is how many people commonly translate it.
This is for good reason: among the Arab grammarians it did not mean dialect! 🧵
In Modern Standard Arabic, luġah basically just means "language", as can be seen, e.g. on the Arabic Wikipedia page on the Dutch Language which calls it al-luġah al-hūlandiyyah.
This modern use gets projected onto the early Arab grammarians like Sībawayh and al-Farrāʾ.
But, they clearly do not mean that to the early grammarians. This is clear from statements like Sībawayh saying: faʿil forms that have a guttural consonant as second radical have four "luġāt": faʿil, fiʿil, faʿl and fiʿl.
In English a word or word-form cannot "have" a dialect.
A great irony of the whole "Muhammad is in the song of songs!" debacle, is that in basically all early sources that write vowels (Greek, Coptic, Sassanian, Syriac) but also in many modern languages (e.g. Turkish) his name appears to have been commonly been pronounced Maḥma/id.
Maḥmad would be a perfect match for the word-form found in the song of songs. But to give into that would of course be to allow for the Quran what they so readily consider acceptable for Hebrew, and are not willing to grant that. Double standards, plain and simple.
Because there is so much 7th-9th c. material that *clearly* attest to the prophet being called Maḥmad, even in Muslim documents, there is really no doubt that quite some muslims were calling him Maḥmad. There is no evidence the song of songs maḥămaddim was ever muḥammad.
I made some diagrams of al-Dānī's ʾisnāds to the seven eponymous readers in the Taysīr. I thought it'd be nice to go through them, and give a couple of comments about them. So here I give a quick thread with some commentaries.
Notable first is that al-Dānī explicitly transmits each readings from two transmitters in two different modes of transmission:
riwāyah: a formal transmission of the specifities of the reading.
tilāwah: a full recitation of the Quran to their teacher which is validated that way.
These days tilāwah eclipses riwāyah so much that (if I am not mistaken) people essentially given up on formal riwāyah ʾisnāds altogether. But al-Dānī (and with him many early authors close to him) seem to give both, even (or especially?) in a learner's manual like the Taysīr.
A summary thread of Hythem Sidky's new article: "Consonantal Dotting and the Oral Quran".
I don't usually thread's on other people's publications, but this article is really important, and Hythem has left Twitter, so I figured I'd highlight some of the main takeaways.
It has long been recognised that the Quran as we have it today cannot be explained as a purely oral tradition. The written Uthmanic text plays a definite role in the transmission of the text as we have it today. Sidky: Can we show and date the existence of an oral layer?
In recent years, observing that some of the competing readings are likely to be distinct guesses at the same ambiguous written text, people have started to wonder: so are they all just guesses? Did Muslims receive the text, and then had to independently figure out what it said?