A new, comprehensive preregistered meta-analysis found that, whether the diversity was demographic, cognitive, or occupational, its relationship with performance was near-zero.
These authors were very thorough
Just take a look at the meta-analytic estimates. These are in terms of correlations, and they are corrected for attenuation
These effect sizes are significant due to the large number of studies, but they are very low, even after blowing them up
You may ask yourself: are there hidden moderators?
The answer looks to be 'probably not.' Team longevity, industry sector, performance measures, power distance, year or country of study, task complexity, team interdependence, etc.
None of it really mattered.
Here's longevity:
Here's power distance:
Here's collectivism:
But let's put this into practical terms.
Using these disattenuated effects, if you selected from two groups you expected to have comparable performance otherwise, but one was more diverse, you'd make the 'correct' (higher-performing) decision in 51% of cases (vs. 50%).
That assumes there really hasn't been any bias in what gets published. If there has been, you might want to adjust your estimate downwards towards zero, or upwards if you think the literature was rigged the other way.
The paper paints an unsupportive picture of the idea that diversity on its own makes teams more performant.
I've seen a lot of people recently claim that the prevalence of vitiligo is 0.5-2%.
This is just not true. In the U.S. today, it's closer to a sixth of a percent, with some notable age- and race-related differences.
But where did the 0.5-2% claim come from?🧵
The claim of a 0.5-2% prevalence emerged on here because Google's Gemini cited a 2020 review in the journal Dermatology which proclaimed as much in the abstract.
Simple enough, right? They must have a source that supports this estimate in the review somewhere.
They cite four studies for the 0.5-2% claim, so let's look into those studies.
Relationships between class and fertility and IQ and fertility used to routinely be negative in the not-so-distant past.
But across the developed world, they're increasingly positive, albeit only slightly. In this Swedish birth cohort (1951-67), the transition came early:
In this example, there's also some interesting confounding: between families, IQ isn't monotonically associated with fertility, but within families, it is.
Something seems to suppress the IQ-fertility relationship between families!
Sweden's positive IQ-fertility gradient (which, above, is just for males, since it's draftee data), has been around for quite a while (but has varied, too), whereas in countries like France, Japan, and the U.S., the gradient shift towards being slightly positive is more recent.
This is a really strong claim based on really scant evidence.
Add in a control for family history or use Bonferroni instead of Benjamini-Hochberg and 5-aminovaleric acid betaine goes nonsignificant. Add in polygenic risk scores too and Cyclo(Leu-Pro) goes nonsignificant.
Using a small number of the total tests (multiple comparison correction was too lax), the model with both metabolites in it alone led to p-values of 0.3512 for 5-AVAB and 0.0188 for Cyclo(Leu-Pro) and that's from a model without family history or genetic risk.
I don't see any good reason why, but the authors preferred to make inferences from a model missing important controls they had available
But to make matters worse, 5-AVAB wasn't measured super well, and the analyses with cLP were not quantitative at all, as most data was missing