If you have ever interacted with a Roman Catholic, you have no doubt run into the "You Don't Understand Infallibility" wall which the Roman Catholic erects to protect himself from the realization that he himself does not—and cannot—understand infallibility.🧵
2. Every conversation on infallibility essentially reduces to this:
C: Jesus established an infallible teaching authority to protect His Church from teaching error.
P: Which church teachings are infallible?
C. You just don't understand infallibility.
See exhibits A & B, below.
3. To edify the saints (and to walk Catholics to their first day of infallibility school), I provide at no charge this public service: an X class on Infallibility.
Within the family of infallibility, there exist two genera:
Ordinary and Extraordinary Magisterial Infallibility.
4. Within the genera of Magisterial Infallibility, there exist three species of infallibility:
Ordinary: bishops, in union with the pope, in their day-to-day instruction of the flock.
Extraordinary: Ecumenical Councils and Ex Cathedra
("from the chair") statements of the Pope.
5. So difficult is it to know if the Ordinary Magisterium has taught infallibly, the Catholic Encyclopedia dismisses it: It is "theoretically true" that the Ordinary Magisterium can be definitively infallible, but "in practice" it's impossible to prove. newadvent.org/cathen/07790a.…
6. This is why both clergy & lay have such a difficult time agreeing on ordinary magisterial infallibility. An online article from The Fatima Organization says "the Ordinary Magisterium is capable of erring," and another here on twitter insists it is not (Exhibits B & C, below).
7. We can hardly blame exasperated RC philosopher Timothy Gordon (Exhibit D) who admits what every Protestant already knows: "No one really knows what's in the Magisterium. Did you know that? No one even knows what's officially in it." (23:00 minute mark) rumble.com/v2xg3ec-breaki…
8. Thus, the Catholic Encyclopedia demurs, focusing only on Extraordinary Magisterial infallibility: "Hence, for practical purposes ... we may neglect the so called magisterium ordinarium and confine our attention to ecumenical councils & the pope."
And thus, so shall we.
9. Catholics are obligated to believe the infallible teachings of Ecumenical Councils. But ... nobody is quite sure which ones are Ecumenical. Bellarmine didn't think Basle (AD 1431) was Ecumenical. Excommunicated Archbishop Viganò doesn't believe Vatican II was Ecumenical.
10. Fifty other clergy, scholars & journalists agreed with him on that (Exhibit E). RadTrads wonder as well.
Additionally, "Trullo (AD 692) is increasingly being recognized as belonging among the ecumenical councils" (Nedungatt, Trullo Revisited, 2010). lifesitenews.com/blogs/50-pries…
11. The cause of this confusion? While Ecumenical Councils are allegedly "infallible," there is no infallible list of such Councils. According to Canon Lawyer Nedungatt, "no authoritative church magisterium [has] established" an authoritative list. Every RC must compile his own.
12. This leads to much confusion. E.g., provincial or regional councils are not infallible and thus do not publish infallible decrees. But that does not prevent some Catholics from imbuing their favorite provincial council with Ecumenical authority. newadvent.org/cathen/12515a.…
13. One RC on X recently claimed infallible knowledge of the canon of Scripture from the provincial Council of Rome (AD 382), claiming it was Ecumenical (Exhibit F). The Encyclopedia says otherwise: "The provincial council is not competent to deal directly with matters of faith."
14. Well, if the Ordinary Magisterium is only "theoretically" infallible, and the Extraordinary Magisterium hasn't given a definitive list of Ecumenical Councils—leaving Roman Catholics to come up with their own—the only remaining organ of Extraordinary infallibility is the Pope.
15. But that is problematic because nobody seems to know when, why or how a pope speaks infallibly. Karl Keating says the pope teaches infallibly "only when some doctrine has been called into question" (Papal Infallibility). But Scott Hahn's opinion is the exact opposite:
16. "Many people think that this ex cathedra … is sort of like the ultimate way in which the pope resolves doctrinal controversies. That is the opposite of the truth" (A Biblical Understanding of Mary). Whom shall we believe? Hahn or Keating?
17. And how do we know if the Pope has spoken ex cathedra? Scott Butler says it's easy: "when [1] as the supreme shepherd and teacher of all the faithful ..., [2] by a definitive act [3] he proclaims a doctrine of faith or morals" (Jesus, Peter and the Keys). But others disagree.
18. The Catholic Encyclopedia says there are 4 criteria, but Fr. William Most says there are only two: "[1] the intent to make an item definitive, plus [2] writing in such a way as to make that intent clear" (Most, Infallibility). Is it any wonder there is no infallible list?
19. As I demonstrated in my response to @RealCandaceO, nobody knows how many times the pope has spoken ex cathedra, which is why there are so many divergent & fallible opinions from Catholics on a definitive number ex cathedra papal statements (Exhibit G).
20. This led to a hilarious interaction with Catholic Answers' Al Fr. Justin who said: "The Church officially recognizes only 2 instances of a Pope speaking ex cathedra." Then upon reflection: "The Catholic Church doesn't provide a comprehensive list of ex cathedra statements."
21. Small wonder that Catholic apologist Robert Sungenis, unable to figure out ex cathedra, threw up his hands: "This is why I said earlier that when the Church makes something infallible, I wish they would just do it plainly & clearly, as Canon 749.3 requires." (August 5, 2008)
22. Such confusion is exacerbated by the fact that Catholics don't realize that in an ex cathedra statement, only the dogmatic definition is infallible, leading to @Burgess7281975's mistake of thinking that Pius IX had declared "ex cathedra" that Mary is Titular queen of heaven!
23. But the Catholic Encyclopedia says otherwise: "It should be noted that not everything contained in a definition is infallibly defined. ... Incidental statements, called obiter dicta, are also examples of non-definitive utterances." newadvent.org/cathen/04675b.…
24. So here is "Infallibility" in a nutshell: The Ordinary Magisterium is theoretically infallible but no one even knows what's in it. The Extraordinary Magisterium has provided neither an infallible list of Ecumenical Councils nor such a list of ex cathedra papal statements.
25. Catholics on X will confidently pontificate about this teaching or that, one council or another, one allegedly ex cathedra statement or another, never realizing that their own confusion is because it's they, not Protestants, who "don't understand infallibility"! Now you know.
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This reader took the time to rebut the class notes from Infallibility 101, and in doing so essentially reaffirmed our conclusions on infallibility—that nobody can know with certainty what has been infallibly taught, and therefore each Catholic is on his own. Let's take a look.🧵
2. On items 5-8 he says I "misrepresented" the Catholic Encyclopedia because it just says it's hard to know which teachings are part of the Ordinary Magisterium. But that's exactly the problem I raised, and exactly what the Encyclopedia insists: "in practice it may be impossible to prove conclusively that such unanimity as may exist has a strictly definitive value in any particular case." And because it's so hard to know, the Encyclopedia preferred rather to address the other organs of infallibility, and so did I. Readers may consult the Encyclopedia themselves and judge for themselves: newadvent.org/cathen/07790a.…
3. On item 9, he said Bellarmine can be excused for dismissing Basle (AD 1431) because it was "difficult to know" which parts of it were infallible. But Bellarmine also omitted Constance (AD 1418) from his list of Councils. Bellarmine was Archbishop of Capua from 1602-05, and yet was unaware of the Ecumenical status of two councils from 200 years prior? This simply reinforces our observation that it's so hard to know because there is no formal magisterial list of ecumenical councils, which is the point Nendungatt made as well: "Catholics generally exhibit a longer list of 21 ecumenical councils including the two Vatican Councils. But this is not an official list or canon fixed by any ecumenical council or papal definition or decree. During the Counter Reformation Catholics drew up several lists of ecumenical councils. One such, by Robert Bellarmine, listed 18 of them, omitting Constance)."
It's August, and that means it's that time of year when Roman Catholics claim that the church has believed in Mary's bodily assumption for 2000 years, and the only reason they didn't mention anything about until—wait for it—the late 4th century, is because nobody questioned it!🧵
2. Yesterday, Catholic Answers, sent out an email reminding Catholics that Mary's Assumption has "been believed in the Church for 2,000 years." But last year's email said there's no evidence for the dogma in the first three centuries "Because the doctrine wasn’t being attacked."
3. That's a common deflection, but in truth, the Assumption WAS materially "attacked" for the first three centuries. We know this because the Assumption Dogma itself requires implicitly that Mary be sinless and that her virginity be preserved 'in partu'—that is, in childbirth.
In these trying times, it is easy to be distracted by the cares of this world and forget the important things: like, that nobody thought Peter was the first bishop of Rome until ... the late 4th century! Fortunately😇, I'm here to help everyone stay focused on what matters.🧵
2. Irenæus (AD 189) thought that Peter and Paul together "having founded" the church in Rome made Linus its first bishop. He said Peter & Paul "committed into the hands of Linus the office of the episcopate," then to Anacletus, then to Clement. (Against Heresies 3.3.3)
3. Tertullian (215 AD) was absolutely sure that Clement had been "ordained in like manner by Peter" in Rome in exactly the same way Polycarp had been ordained in Smyrna by John (Prescription Against Heretics, 32). No mention of either apostle being "first bishop" in either place.
The 5 Marian Dogmas reveal as much about Rome's departure from the early church as they do about its reliance on Marian Apparitions for revelation. The 5 Dogmas are "Mother of God," perpetual virgin, sinless, assumed into heaven, and intercessor of all Christians. Let's see.🧵
2. The 1st certain literary use of theotokos was by Alexander of Alexandria—324 AD—to distinguish between Jesus' divine generation by His Father (theogonias) & his human generation by His mother (theotokos) (to Alexander of Constantinople 12). Thus, theotokos ≠ Mother of God.
3. Augustine for example wrote "without a mother He was God, without a father He was man" (on John, 8). If Theotokos expressed "without a mother He was God," then it cannot mean "Mother of God." It was first rendered Mater Dei (MoG) in Latin—wait for it—in the late 4th century.
As fascinating as Viganò's trial is, what must not be overlooked is first, that he thinks he is simply saying what the Apparitions of Mary revealed, and second, how common that is in Roman Catholicism. It is truly the religion of Marian Apparitions, not the religion of Christ.🧵
2. In the Lifesite article, Viganò says the sorry condition of Rome today "makes us understand how terrible are the words of the Virgin Mary at La Salette—'Rome will lose the faith and become the seat of the Antichrist.'" He cites authoritatively an apparition of Mary from 1846.
3. That is standard fare. Why did Pope Francis consecrate Russia to Mary's "immaculate heart" in 2022? He performed the consecration—to much rejoicing in the Catholic world—because the 1917 Apparition of Mary at Fatima requested that the Pope do so. ewtn.com/catholicism/an…
It seems that I have frustrated another Roman Catholic by asking him to prove that he can measure up to the same standard by which he measures me. The classic "gotcha" question for Protestants is to prove the canon of Scripture FROM the Scripture. My answer: I will if you will.🧵
2. The Catholic immediately produces the canons of Trent in 1546 (or if he is more ambitious, the canons of Florence in 1449 or the alleged synod of Rome in 382 AD)—because for the Roman Catholic, the "word of God" is not limited to Scripture but is also conveyed via Tradition.
3. As Pope Paul VI said in Dei Verbum, "Sacred tradition and Sacred Scripture form one sacred deposit of the word of God" (II.10). So if the Protestant is to prove the canon of the Word of God FROM the Word of God, the Roman Catholic (to win) must prove that he can do the same.