How bad are Richard Lynn's 2002 national IQ estimates?
They correlate at r = 0.93 with our current best estimates.
It turns out that they're really not bad, and they don't provide evidence of systematic bias on his part🧵
In this data, Lynn overestimated national IQs relative to the current best estimates by an average of 0.97 points.
The biggest overestimation took place in Latin America, where IQs were overestimated by an average of 4.2 points. Sub-Saharan Africa was underestimated by 1.89 pts.
Bias?
If you look at the plot again, you'll see that I used Lynn's infamously geographically imputed estimates.
That's true! I wanted completeness. What do the non-imputed estimates look like? Similar, but Africa does worse. Lynn's imputation helped Sub-Saharan Africa!
If Lynn was biased, then his bias had minimal effect, and his much-disdained imputation resulted in underperforming Sub-Saharan Africa doing a bit better. Asia also got a boost from imputation.
The evidence that Lynn was systematically biased in favor of Europeans? Not here.
Fast forward to 2012 and Lynn had new estimates that are vastly more consistent with modern ones. In fact, they correlate at 0.96 with 2024's best estimates.
With geographic imputation, the 2012 data minimally underestimates Sub-Saharan Africa and once again, whatever bias there is, is larger with respect to Latin America, overestimating it.
But across all regions, there's just very little average misestimation.
Undo the imputation and, once again... we see that Lynn's preferred methods improved the standing of Sub-Saharan Africans.
There's really just nothing here. Aggregately, Lynn overestimated national IQs by 0.41 points without imputation and 0.51 with. Not much to worry about.
The plain fact is that whatever bias Lynn might have had didn't impact his results much. Rank orders and exact estimates are highly stable across sources and time.
It also might need to be noted: these numbers can theoretically change over time, even if they don't tend to, so this potential evidence for meager bias on Lynn's part in sample selection and against in methods might be due to changes over time in population IQs or data quality.
It might be worth looking into that more, but the possibility of bias is incredibly meager and limited either way, so putting in that effort couldn't reveal much of anything regardless of the direction of any possible revealed bias in the estimates (not to imply bias in estimates means personal biases were responsible, to be clear).
Some people messaged me to say they had issues with interpreting the charts because of problems distinguishing shaded-over colors.
If that sounds like you, don't worry, because here are versions with different layering:
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Roughly one-third of all of Japan's urban building was done through a process of replotting land parcels and reconstructing homes to increase local density while making way for new infrastructure🧵
Conceptually, it's like this:
In that diagram, you see an area of low-density homes that has undergone land rights conversion, where, when two-thirds of the area’s existing homeowners agree, everyone’s right to their land is converted to the rights to an equivalent part of a new building.
This works well to generate substantial, dense amounts of housing, and it's, crucially, democratic.
All the decision-making power was held by those who were directly affected, and not outsiders to the situation.
If 2/3 wanted to upzone, they could, and they did!
I've seen a lot of people recently claim that the prevalence of vitiligo is 0.5-2%.
This is just not true. In the U.S. today, it's closer to a sixth of a percent, with some notable age- and race-related differences.
But where did the 0.5-2% claim come from?🧵
The claim of a 0.5-2% prevalence emerged on here because Google's Gemini cited a 2020 review in the journal Dermatology which proclaimed as much in the abstract.
Simple enough, right? They must have a source that supports this estimate in the review somewhere.
They cite four studies for the 0.5-2% claim, so let's look into those studies.
Relationships between class and fertility and IQ and fertility used to routinely be negative in the not-so-distant past.
But across the developed world, they're increasingly positive, albeit only slightly. In this Swedish birth cohort (1951-67), the transition came early:
In this example, there's also some interesting confounding: between families, IQ isn't monotonically associated with fertility, but within families, it is.
Something seems to suppress the IQ-fertility relationship between families!
Sweden's positive IQ-fertility gradient (which, above, is just for males, since it's draftee data), has been around for quite a while (but has varied, too), whereas in countries like France, Japan, and the U.S., the gradient shift towards being slightly positive is more recent.