1/13
Case resolution:
▪️BAL(-); nodules too small for bx
▪️Brain bx: angioinvasive, polymorphic lymphocytic infiltrates (atypical B, T cells) w/ areas of necrosis, EBV+
Diagnosis: Lymphomatoid granulomatosis (LG), IRIS
ART continued + rituximab 👉 significant improvement
2/13
Let’s review the schema we talked about previously 👉 syndromic approach to HIV OI that begins w/ knowing the CD4 count and focusing on the predominant signs & symptoms👇
3/13
The timeline of our patient’s illness can be represented as:
Point A (CD4 40, confusion, neg w/u) ➡️ ART ➡️ Point B (increased CD4, seizure, rim enhancing brain lesions)
More clues are available in Point B so let’s zoom there.
4/13
From the schema, we think of common processes (e.g. bacterial abscess), primary CNS lymphoma (PCNSL) & Toxo. IRIS has been reported in both PCNSL & Toxo.
5/13
A (-)serology makes Toxo unlikely but not impossible. A (-)PCR also makes it unlikely but bear in mind that PCR testing is only 50% Sn. bit.ly/3eaxLZT
One could argue that our patient could be empirically Tx for Toxo & observed for clinical & radiologic response.
6/13
What do we know of LG? Let’s build the illness script.
❗️Epi:
▪️Occurs in immunocompromised persons (HIV, transplant, congenital). 20+ cases in HIV bit.ly/2TuIYwE
▪️All age groups, slight male predominance
7/13
‼️Clinical:
▪️Pulm > CNS/skin
▪️Cough & fever, most common SSX
▪️Multiple lung nodules on imaging 👇 (Image 1) bit.ly/2WWcrkY
▪️Skin (40%). Nodules, papules, ulcers 👇(Image 2) bit.ly/2TxVjjs
8/13
▪️ CNS (30%). Rim-enhancing lesions, usually multiple (unlike PCNSL in which lesion has homogenous enhancement and is soliary)
▪️Other organs: kidney, liver (nodules on imaging)
▪️Lymph nodes & spleen rarely involved ⚡️⚡️⚡️
9/13
❗️Time course:
▪️ Subacute to chronic illness much like many diseases that affect immunocompromised patients
▪️Can remit-recur/persist over months before dx 👇 bit.ly/3e9AgLX (yes, it’s from #fauci ❤️)
10/13
Mechanism:
▪️Unknown but related to abnormal response to EBV
▪️Different EBV-associated malignancy thought to arise depending on the stage of B cell dev’t arrested 👇bit.ly/2WV799y
11/13
‼️In summary, LG is an ID mimic ⚡️resembles lymphoma but differs from it (13% develop lymphoma):
▪️Polymorphic B & T cell infiltrate
▪️Predilection for vascular invasion
▪️Necrosis (“granulomatous”)
▪️Lack of spleen or LN involvement
▪️vs PCNSL (multiple, rim-enhancing)
12/13
Add LG in your DDX for immunocompromised patients w/:
▪️Fever + lung nodules (together w/ fungal, AFB, etc)
▪️Lung + brain (+/- skin). We’ve talked about this before 👇
38/M w/ progressive loss of scalp, axilla, and chest hairs. Recently dx w/ HIV 6 mos ago when he developed dissem cryptococcosis. He has now been taking TDF/FTC, raltegravir, TMP/SMX, azithromycin, & fluconazole x 6 mos. Drug-induced alopecia is suspected. Most likely culprit?
1/8 Nice job! 52% got the right answer, fluconazole.
In animals/humans, fluconazole has been shown to induce telogen effluvium bit.ly/2MMnF9j, one of the most common causes of nonscarring hair loss (see Table 👇 bit.ly/38rTXyN).
2/8 Normal hair cycle: anagen (growth) 👉catagen (transformation) 👉telogen (resting) 👉 shedding. Cycle is asynchronous (no mass hair shedding). At any given time, 90% of hair are in anagen, 1% in catagen, 10% in telogen.
32/M, h/o HSV encep 1 mo ago (s/p 21 d ACV), on ceftri/metronidazole for sacral OM, p/t ER +delusion, fever, seizure. CSF: WBC 25 (L>N), ⬆️TP, n/l gluc,(-)HSV. Septic w/u all(-). MRI:
b/l temporal lobe enhancement ⬆️ from prior. Whch of the ff is the best Tx for this condition?
1/11
The group is split b/n steroids & d/c metronidazole. The answer here is Tx w/ steroids. Indeed, this is a case of autoimmune post-HSV encephalitis (anti-NMDA receptor encephalitis post-HSV). Good job @LemuelNonMD @LeMiguelChavez@adilrashid83@Orchid10Tree@KhalafSuha
2/11
Metronidazole-induced encephalopathy is predominated by cerebellar Sx w/ a distinct involvement of the dentato-rubro-olivary pathway on imaging. We’ve talked about it here before. Refer👇for further discussion
67/M w/ poor control DM, BPH, +10 d dysuria. T38.1, BP 120/80, +tender R CVA. WBC 14. U/A: 21 WBC, UCx: (-)bacteria, +Candida glabrata (fluc-R) x 2 samples. BCx(-), CT: +prostate hypertrophy. Has had no response to ceftriaxone. Has no Foley cath. Which of the ff is indicated?
1/15
The vote is split b/n micafungin and ampho deoxycholate! Thank you for all your responses!
Although micafungin may be a reasonable option, the correct answer here is ampho deoxycholate.
In this tweetorial, we will talk about Candida UTI and its treatment. @ID_fellows
2/15
Candiduria can be challenging as it can potentially indicate: colonization, UTI, or candidemia/disseminated infxn.
Candiduria from a clean-voided urine sample is uncommon (<1%); more commonly seen in hospitalized patients w/ an indwelling bladder cath.
2/20
For centuries, physicians have relied upon meticulous observations to dx infections. For many years, observation of the fever pattern provided physicians w/ important diagnostic clues. However, the advent of abx & advanced dx & imaging has changed this landscape. #idmesh
3/20
Swift initiation of abx & antipyretics make it impossible to verify historical descriptions of certain fever patterns. Hence, inquiry into fever patterns loses its clinical significance bit.ly/33iXCLs.
29M w severe persistent asthma p/w recurrent exacerbations despite optimal LABA/intranasal steroids. Abs eos 1250, total Ig E 1500, CT +mucus plugging, central bronchiectasis upper-middle lobes. Originally from Mexico, now in Texas. Which of the ff tests is indicated?
1/10
Great job! The majority got the right answer, allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA).
Recurrent asthma exacerbations despite optimal asthma therapy & eosinophilia a/w mucus plugging and multilobar central bronchiectasis should raise suspicion for ABPA.
2/10
Aspergillosis, classified as saprophytic (aspergilloma), allergic (ABPA, hypersensitivity pneumonitis, allergic sinusitis), or invasive (pulmonary, other organs).
ABPA: hypersensitivity to A. fumigatus; can also occur from other fungi (referred as ABPM, M for mycosis).
48M +cirrhosis, underwent routine large volume paracentesis. +Abd fullness, (-)fever, abd pain/tenderness, confusion. Ascitic fluid: light yellow, 100 PMNs, SAAG 1.5, Cx +pan-susc E. coli. WBC 8, Crea 0.8, bili 1.8. Which of the ff is best management for this patient?
1/5 Only 21% got this right: no abx, repeat para in 48H.
The dx of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) rests on finding >/= 250 PMNs/mm3 in the ascitic fluid. Most patients with SBP are symptomatic (only 13% with no symptoms bit.ly/3gp5nEU)
2/5
The patient in our case is asymptomatic (no fever, abdominal pain, mental status change 👉most common SBP symptoms) and the ascitic fluid is <250. This is a variant of SBP known as: