The virus infects more people if the virus is more contagious, meaning it has a larger R0.
R0 of 2 implies each infected person infects 2 other people on average, at baseline, before they stop being infectious.
For R0 of 3, they infect 3 others.
Etc
Eventually, so many people become non-infectious + immune to infection, that the virus struggles to find non-immune people to infect and use to infect other non-immune people.
The 'herd immunity threshold' (HIT) is the proportion of people who need to be immune to infection, in order for 'infections per unit time' to stop increasing (i.e. keep R under 1), at baseline.
People still get infected after HIT is reached, but not enough to replace the people who become immune after they recover from infection (since R is now less than 1).
This implies "overshoot": the final percentage of people infected is more than HIT
Well, a respiratory virus like SARS-CoV-2 that spreads by droplets + aerosols, takes longer to infect a given proportion of people in:
- a larger population
- a population spread over a wider geographical area
Since SARS-CoV-2 is very contagious (high R0 and therefore high HIT), SARS-CoV-2 then quickly infects a large proportion of people in smaller populations and/or populations covering small areas, before behavior changes and interventions limit spread
SARS-CoV-2 also infects a higher proportion of people in areas that remain closer to the baseline conditions of R0 (i.e. not much infection-limiting behavior changes and/or public health interventions like mask-wearing).
Larger populations see people dying of COVID-19, and respond with additional behavior changes + public health interventions that push them further from the baseline conditions of R0.
That limits the spread of SARS-CoV-2 and limits COVID-19 deaths.
So larger populations and/or populations spread over larger geographic areas, end up with a lower proportion of people infected, even though HIT is high.
Some people see those lower proportion of infected people, and incorrectly infer HIT is low
I'll make a claim some people may find controversial:
Claiming HIT is very low (ex: ~10% - ~20%) is *dangerous and obviously incorrect.*
In fact, it may be the most dangerous idea to emerge during the COVID-19 pandemic.
Saying we reached a low HIT tells us we no longer need to go beyond *baseline conditions* to prevent infections/day from increasing; i.e. no additional:
- mask-wearing
- avoiding visiting nursing homes + large indoor gathers
- vaccinations
etc.
The non-experts have no background in epidemiology, immunology, etc.
So they falsely assume only herd immunity can limit R and thus limit infections per day; i.e. they assume if infections/day and COVID-19 deaths/day decrease, then HIT was reached
But SARS-CoV-2, the virus that causes the disease COVID-19, isn't an STI. It's a respiratory virus spread by droplets + aerosols, using behaviors more common to everyone, such as breathing + face-touching
Ironically, many non-experts try to lecture me on how heterogeneity (differences) are large for SARS-CoV-2, when they know less about this than me. 🤦♂️
Highlights in tweets in part 30/X onwards, in case they try this on you.
Different T cell responses between people won't give enough heterogeneity to greatly lower HIT, especially since T cells are not primarily involved in limiting infections. They're more about responding after infection.
In layman's terms: cross-reactivity involves the immune system treating SARS-CoV-2 like another virus the immune system previously responded to, such as another coronavirus.
There are transmission differences, such as medical professionals generating aerosols when they intubate people (i.e. place tube down their throat), placing those professionals at more risk from SARS-CoV-2-containing aerosols.
There isn't perfect sameness (perfect homogeneity).
But it's homogenous enough for a high HIT + to have "HIT = 1 - (1 / R0)" from part 7/X be a decent approximation, consistent with the high infection rates from 12/X + 13/X
The observed pattern of infections and COVID-19 deaths better fit one would expect from behavior changes + public health interventions limiting infections, not herd immunity (with a low HIT) limiting infections, as per part 16/X.
So some reasons for thinking the herd immunity threshold is high:
- the biology underlying transmission of respiratory viruses
- high infection rates
- second waves
- higher fatality rates at higher infection rates
etc.
And I've see no good reason to think HIT is very low
40/X
Some folks claim HIT is low, b/c it allows them to downplay how dangerous COVID-19 is + thus avoid policies they dislike (like lockdowns).
Hence why many of the same people who suggest HIT is low, also under-estimated SARS-CoV-2's fatality rate. 🤷♂️
For example: people not becoming immune to infection after they're infected. The "HIT = 1 - (1 / R0)" calculation assumes persistent immunity after infection, as per part 26/X.
Though SARS-CoV-2 is more contagious than seasonal influenza (i.e. higher R0), other factors slow its spread. That gives larger populations more time to use public health interventions + behavior changes to slow its spread, as per parts 11/X to 16/X
Many COVID-19 contrarians, including those behind the Great Barrington Declaration, *still* cite John Ioannidis' inaccurate estimate of SARS-CoV-2's fatality rate.
So let's go over how atrocious Ioannidis' paper is.
Ioannidis uses antibody (a.k.a. seroprevalence) studies to estimate the number of people infected with the virus SARS-CoV-2. He then calculates IFR by dividing the number of COVID-19 deaths by the number of infected people.
Peter C Gøtzsche (@PGtzsche1) wrote the article below
He argues that COVID-19 isn't very lethal, + then draws some political conclusions.
The article is poor.
"Is the infection fatality rate for COVID-19 worse than that for influenza?" bmj.com/content/371/bm…
2/P
Gøtzsche's basic idea is:
The proportion of SARS-CoV-2-infected people who die of the disease COVID-19 is comparable to that of flu; i.e. the infection fatality rate (IFR) for COVID-19 is not an order of magnitude larger than that of the flu.
Gøtzsche is wrong. Study after study shows that the fatality rate for SARS-CoV-2 is about an order of magnitude larger than that of influenza; COVID-19 is way more dangerous than the flu.
So the test correction based on FINDDx increases the Gangelt IFR by ~4, and/or renders Gangelt less relevant since corrected seroprevalence overlaps with 0%.
There are other cases in which using FINDDx decreases IFR. For example:
Based on the above paper's FINDDx-based analysis, some of the worse offenders in terms of sensitivity (i.e. false negatives) at particular times post-infection are:
Sweden did not lockdown in response to COVID-19. Many politically-motivated COVID-19 contrarians try to support Sweden's policy by making misleading comparisons between Sweden + other countries. This thread will address that.