40M with no PMHx presents to ED with 3 days of fever, cough, & SOB. Vitals: T 39C, HR 120, BP 130/80, O2 93% on 4L. Exam notable for R basilar rhonchi & crackles. CXR shows RLL opacity. He is started on ceftriaxone
2/
4 days later, he is still having intermittent fevers with Tmax 38.1C, O2 94% on 2L. He does not have dysuria or hematuria. The team orders a CT chest, which reveals a dense RLL consolidation. In addition to sputum cultures, which of the following tests should be ordered?
1/10
Here, the patient has ongoing fevers and hypoxia, with a CT that shows a RLL consolidation. In addition to sputum cultures, the patient should also have blood cultures obtained to complete the fever work up. There is no dysuria or hematuria to prompt the ordering of an UA
2/ With respect to the consolidation, the patient could still have a dense bacterial PNA. The patient has no PMHx and does not have any known risk factors for IFI. Your pretest probability for a fungal infection is very low. As such, there is no indication to send serum BDG or GM
3/ Why is your pretest probability low? Why aren’t BDG and GM indicated? Because the host's risks for a fungal infection is very low, and as of right now, the clinical presentation is not consistent with a fungal infection
4/ Fungi can cause infections depending on epi & host factors. Given challenges of culture-based diagnostics, serum biomarkers such as beta-d-glucan (BDG) & galactomannan (GM) can aid in the diagnosis. Performance of these biomarkers depend on organism, host factors & prevalence
5/
No diagnostic test is perfect. In order to use tests to our advantage, we need to know disease prevalence to calculate PPV & NPV. The disease prevalence, as well as clinical presentation drives pretest probability, which influences post-test likelihood of disease
6/ To help determine pretest probability, you can use this table with fungal infections & patient characteristics
7/ Once you get a feel for pre-test probability (probability of disease based on prevalence according to host risks & clinical presentation) of the fungal infection for your patient, you can see how this value impacts the post-test probabilities of serum BDG or GM
8/ You see this study & find that BDG>80 has a sens 64% & spec 92% for fungal infections. This helps determine the PPV/NPV at different prevalence rates
10/ It’s important to know pretest probability of a fungal infection (knowing pt characteristics & presentation) & test characteristics (analytic performance) of biomarkers
50F w/ EtOH cirrhosis & DM presents to ED w/ AMS & decreased UOP. She is febrile & hypotensive
She is started on vasopressors & CVVHD via central lines in the ICU
Due to concern for SBP, she is started on ceftriaxone
2/ Initial blood & ascites cultures show no growth. She remains critically ill for 7 days and still having fevers
In addition to blood cultures, which of the following is the next best test to order?
1/13
Answer: Serum BDG
You have suspicion for invasive candidiasis given the RF of cirrhosis, critical illness in ICU w/ central lines, dialysis, & broad-spectrum antibiotics (see other RF in table)
60M w/ asthma from China presents w/ SOB secondary to an asthma exacerbation. He has never smoked cigarettes. A CT chest shows a 7mm right upper lobe nodule
Which of the following tests should be ordered for further evaluation of the nodule?
1/14
Answer: AFB sputum culture
Without knowing much about the patient, other than age, geographic risk, smoking status, & normal immune status, most common infectious cause of a solitary pulmonary nodule (SPN) is TB.
2/ It’s possible that the SPN may be latent TB, but we need to rule out active TB first (AFB sputum cultures x3) before considering latent TB
Fungal causes are less likely. If we want to work it up, it would be pathogen specific (e.g., Cocci Ab) & not broad antigen testing (BDG)
75F w/ lupus, HTN, recent diagnosis of HIV (viral load 30,000, CD4- 57), presents to ED in winter w/ 4 weeks of shortness of breath & cough. T 38.5C, HR 105, BP 105/80, RR 20, O2 94% on 3L. Exam is notable for crackles & rhonchi in both lungs
2/ Labs: WBC 2,600, Hb 7.5 g/dL, platelet 70,000. CXR shows diffuse opacities. You have suspicion for Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia
Which of the following is the best non-invasive test to order to help confirm the diagnosis?
1/11
Answer: Serum BDG
⭐️LDH elevation is nonspecific and can be elevated in many diffuse pulm processes
Serum GM is not helpful in diagnosing PJP since its cell wall does not contain GM
BDG is a cell wall polysaccharide present in many pathogenic fungi including P. jirovecii