[Thread]
There are a couple of potential objections disbelievers can make to try and get around this conclusion, but on further examination, these objections do not work. A Short thread
Disclaimer: I do not endorse every claim of parallelism in the chart, some can be disputed
There are a couple of potential objections disbelievers can make to try and get around this conclusion, but on further examination, these objections do not work. A Short thread
Disclaimer: I do not endorse every claim of parallelism in the chart, some can be disputed
https://twitter.com/djdegaf/status/1357635605920944130
If said claims of parallelism were true, Rasulallah (ṣallā -llāhu ʿalayhī wa-sallam) must have known all these languages & had a library of books if he had made up the Quran
A potential objection is: "But the stories could be orally floating around & not taken from books"
A potential objection is: "But the stories could be orally floating around & not taken from books"
Thus, according to the objection, Rasulallah (ṣallā -llāhu ʿalayhī wa-sallam) did not need to know any other language or have access to any writings, these were just commonly available oral stories
However the Qur'an demonstrates clear language specific knowledge of Hebrew:
However the Qur'an demonstrates clear language specific knowledge of Hebrew:
The above screenshot is taken from this article: ponderingislam.com/2016/06/30/int…
Here is another (possible) example: ponderingislam.com/2020/07/29/lik…
Here is another (possible) example: ponderingislam.com/2020/07/29/lik…
Yet another possible case: ponderingislam.com/2020/06/10/the…
The point of this is that this information can't be obtained just by second hand oral stories. One has to have knowledge of the original wording and Hebrew language
This thread also shows clear Hebrew language-specific knowledge:
This thread also shows clear Hebrew language-specific knowledge:
https://twitter.com/11edge11/status/1345841982594297857
Additionally, on top of this, the chart in the first tweet of this thread also cites parallelism with the Talmud and the Hebrew bible. One might not appreciate the significance of this initially, but Hebrew was an *extinct* language in everyday life!
To be clear, Hebrew was still around, but it was not spoken by Jews in everyday life or used by laymen, they spoke languages like Aramaic. Hebrew was used by Jewish scholars/rabbis etc and other educated members in the community in writings and in religious services
We could compare this to Latin today. Catholics use Latin in some religious capacities, and there are scholars who study and read old Latin works. But nobody on the street is speaking Latin. Hebrew was revived as a spoken language in relatively recent times by zionist movements
Why is this significant? How could the unlettered messenger (ṣallā -llāhu ʿalayhī wa-sallam), if he was not a true prophet, know this language?
The only way to learn it would be to study for some time with someone who knew it, which would mean some rabbi.
The only way to learn it would be to study for some time with someone who knew it, which would mean some rabbi.
One would also need to access copies of the bible, Talmud (not even in translation), and other texts in Hebrew to make possible much of the polemical parallelism in the Qur'an.
Of course no rabbi is going to do this for a non-Jewish outsider who is opposed to Judaism!
Of course no rabbi is going to do this for a non-Jewish outsider who is opposed to Judaism!
There's also no real candidates to fill this role of some Jewish collaborator. The Qur'an has many hostile passages towards Jews and their religion, there weren't really Jews living inside Mecca and the ones in Medina were openly hostile to Islam
Some of the passages I cited with Hebrew specific knowledge are quite clearly negative towards the Jews (eg. "We hear and we disobey")
Not to mention none of the opponents of Islam in the time of Rasulallah (ṣallā -llāhu ʿalayhī wa-sallam), Jewish or not, made this argument
Not to mention none of the opponents of Islam in the time of Rasulallah (ṣallā -llāhu ʿalayhī wa-sallam), Jewish or not, made this argument
Rasulallah (ṣallā -llāhu ʿalayhī wa-sallam) was unlettered, and opponents did not dispute this. It would be hard to keep secret that you were a student of a rabbi or meeting one (let alone the fact that no rabbi is gonna to teach this to a non-jew who is criticizing Judaism)
Furthermore, this is not the only example of linguistic knowledge. The Qur'an demonstrates absolute mastery of the Arabic language. Please see this short thread, only a few tweets long:
https://twitter.com/_Halaby/status/1337797425751330825
There are many more examples one can bring to show the Arabic mastery of the Qur'an, but the point is not only is knowing Hebrew something required to produce the Qur'an, one would also have absolute mastery of Arabic, including the differences of various tribes
It is untenable that Rasulallah (ṣallā -llāhu ʿalayhī wa-sallam), someone who was unlettered, could have "made it up". There are many more proofs for the divine origin of the Qur'an besides this, but this is enough for the scope of the thread. However I will link other threads:
Both threads just summarize much longer articles linked at the end.
This is not meant to be an exhaustive list of proofs but just a small sample
This is not meant to be an exhaustive list of proofs but just a small sample
• • •
Missing some Tweet in this thread? You can try to
force a refresh
