Thread by @DrRJKavanagh

This headline is super misleading.

First, George Floyd did not die of a drug overdose.

But, if he had, what Mr. Hall theoretically could be charged with is not ordinary 3rd degree murder, but murder as a "drug-induced homicide."

Let me break that down.
nydailynews.com/news/national/…

Minnesota, like most states, has a drug-induced homicide statute. Originally intended as a tool to prosecute drug dealers, they are now used almost exclusively to prosecute family members, friends and acquaintances of people who die of drug overdoses.

theappeal.org/the-lab/explai…

Mostly the prosecutions go unreported.

However, the prosecution of Caleb Smith, a young White man, drew some attention. Mr. Smith facing 20 years in prison after giving his girlfriend fentanyl contained in an adderil pill, killed himself.

theappeal.org/murder-by-pros…

The defense strategy in the Derek Chauvin trial is to force Mr. Hall to testify, where he has indicated he will take the 5th.

Exercising your 5th amendment privilege against self-incrimination does not indicate guilt. You are not compelled to be a witness against yourself.

But the defense knows this is about optics.

The jurors don't understand why a witness is taking the 5th and most media don't understand how a drug-induced homicide charge is different from an ordinary murder charge.

It's a way of painting Mr. Hall as a bad guy. We don't know the relationship between Mr. Hall and Mr. Floyd, but the defense's strategy is clear - it's another attempt to put George Floyd's character on trial.