This article has as its thesis the idea that “triggering Article 16” would require legislation in order to avoid a “clash with the judges”. But it isn’t explained why. telegraph.co.uk/politics/2021/…
The domestic legal position is that, under s7A of the EU Withdrawal Act 2018 (a new section added in 2020 as part of implementing Johnson’s “oven ready deal” on which he won the election) the Withdrawal Agreement is supreme in U.K. law. Including the Protocol.
The effect of that is that, essentially, as matters stand any power exercised by Ministers will be, in domestic law, of no legal effect if it infringes the Protocol. The courts could (and would have to) quash any such measure or declare it unlawful.
However, Article 16 is part of the Protocol. So section 7A would not prevent an exercise of power that fell within Article 16. So if the courts accepted that Article 16 had been lawfully exercised, no problem.
On that, it is generally agreed that the question of whether Art 16 applies raises complex questions of fact and judgment on an essentially political question. Judicial review on such questions is limited, all the more so given the international relations context. Read this:-
The problem, I suspect, is the current government’s new objection of dogma/principle (take your pick) to the role of the EU Court of Justice in the Protocol. “New” because it was crystal clear that the “great/oven-ready deal” that it negotiated and sold to us included that role.
See Article 12 of the Protocol.
Now comes the problem. Remember (from my embedded thread above) that Art 16 can only be used where there are “serious economic, societal or environmental difficulties that are liable to persist, or to diversion of trade”.
Also remember that Art 16 is limited to “appropriate safeguard measures” that must be limited in scope and in duration to what is “strictly necessary” to remedy the situation.
These are wide and fuzzy legal tests. But they are legal tests and have their limits.
The current government’s problem is that its new objection of dogma/principle to the role of the CJEU cannot plausibly be fitted into Article 16. Where are the “serious difficulties” or “diversion of trade” being caused by its role?
A power may be very broad indeed: but if no reason - or no reason that can be stated with a straight face - can be given for exercising it, you are in trouble (see, in a very different context, the prorogation case).
If the current government wants to legislate to cut down or remove the role of the CJEU, it can’t rely on Article 16: and if it tries, it will face likely defeat in the domestic courts.
Hence the need for legislation: but like the misconceived and ill-fated attempt in the Internal Market Bill, such legislation (repealing or modifying section 7A) would necessarily involve a clear breach of Article 4 of the Withdrawal Agreement.
But NB that the IMB proposal was rejected in the Lords by majorities of around 430 to 160, which suggests that some people in government may be counting rather optimistically if they think the result would be much different.
PS Good thread here on the “EU backs down when faced with threats” theory.
In which Martin Howe QC reveals why a U.K. Bill of rights won’t happen. Because our “priority as a nation” would be a right to free health care at the point of need. A priority that no Tory government would ever agree should have constitutional force. telegraph.co.uk/news/2021/10/0…
NB too that “strengthening free speech” would of necessity include strengthening the right to speak in objection to others’ speech (and to refuse to hear their speech or urge boycotts of those who publish their speech).
Ultimately, a debate about what our constitutional rights should be is not a debate that today’s Tory party (or probably any Tory party) wants to see happen, when it pauses for a moment to think about the issues that it would raise.
1. Use of Article 16 does not “replace the Protocol”: it allows a limited and conditional suspension of parts of it. And for other “problematic” parts (eg Article 10 on State aid) there is no arguable legal basis for Article 16 measures.
Those who call for “triggering Article 16” need first to understand the Article and its limitations. On its own, it’s not a call that makes much sense.
In particular, they need to understand that Art16 is not a simple “trigger” that can be pulled at will along the lines of Article 50 TEU. Nor does it have any general effect on the UK’s obligations under the Protocol (again, unlike Art 50).
Rather, Article 16 is a basis for particular targeted measures that are “strictly necessary”, including in scope and duration, (not just “expedient”) to deal with serious disturbances or trade diversion. They must be the minimum necessary to deal with the issue.
In thinking about what Labour’s policy should be on that there are two sorts of uncertainty. One is uncertainty about where the country will be - and where the public mood will be - in 2 or 3 years time.
That is, to an extent, fair enough: provided it doesn’t stop Labour from trying to shape that mood rather than simply responding to it.
“Free movement of people” is a creation of EU law: part of the single market. It only has meaning as part of the EU or EEA.
But plenty of neighbouring states have agreements allowing wide mobility outside that EU law framework. Very close to home: Ireland and the U.K. Further away: Australia and NZ. And other examples of states allowing wide mobility between them.
It’s a really good piece by @dsmitheconomics - and raises the question of whether we now need a department charged with labour force issues: what used to be (until the 90s) the Department of Employment.
My answer would be “yes”: and also to take immigration policy away from the “just say no” culture of the Home Office and give it to the revived department.
(Immigration obviously raises wider issues than just labour force ones. But it is a key part of any rational labour force strategy. And you are likely to get a saner and more humane policy if you start with a labour force perspective than a “keep foreigners out” one.