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If IAS officers are required to learn the language of the state where they are posted, why isn't judiciary?
It's a travesty that Bihar High Court does not allow Hindi in Patna because milords can't stoop to learn it. Can these lords ever provide justice to the common people?
It's a travesty that Bihar High Court does not allow Hindi in Patna because milords can't stoop to learn it. Can these lords ever provide justice to the common people?
Does the Court exist for the convenience of the judges or for the convenience of the people? Time of lords is over.
They either learn the language or get interpreters for themselves at State expense. Not force people to speak in the lord's language.
They either learn the language or get interpreters for themselves at State expense. Not force people to speak in the lord's language.
https://twitter.com/KM078_/status/1653348243248492558?s=20twitter.com/i/web/status/1…
The untouchability due to #EnglishApartheid affects the common man today more.
State systematically denies access to higher education, courts and so many opportunities using this. It is legal apartheid, but no FCRA-NGOs will protest. Guess why not?
State systematically denies access to higher education, courts and so many opportunities using this. It is legal apartheid, but no FCRA-NGOs will protest. Guess why not?
https://twitter.com/akssri3/status/1653343079963967488?s=20
And it persists due to this kind of attitude.
Why? It's a democracy, not colonial rule. The state exists to serve the people, not vice versa.
Why? It's a democracy, not colonial rule. The state exists to serve the people, not vice versa.
https://twitter.com/Maheshk72/status/1653381329986424833?s=20
This is the kind of #EnglishSlavery some Indians carry.
1. Apparently Japan, Korea, China, Poland, Germany, Italy etc are not urbanized. Because "urban"=English.
2. Nor do any of these have law courts, because justice=English.
How to educate these?
1. Apparently Japan, Korea, China, Poland, Germany, Italy etc are not urbanized. Because "urban"=English.
2. Nor do any of these have law courts, because justice=English.
How to educate these?
https://twitter.com/aiatmk1/status/1653399603637616641?s=20
You know why?
Because the British India Act of 1935, passed by British Parliament with no Indian representative, said so. We just copied most of it into our "new constitution."
Why do we say India became independent? It isn't.
Because the British India Act of 1935, passed by British Parliament with no Indian representative, said so. We just copied most of it into our "new constitution."
Why do we say India became independent? It isn't.
https://twitter.com/rroshankujur/status/1653399097553092608?s=20
This is where article 348(1) of the Constitution comes from, which mandates English in High Courts.
From a law passed in British parliament in 1935 to govern India. Independence?
From a law passed in British parliament in 1935 to govern India. Independence?
https://twitter.com/sankrant/status/1052857031831375872?s=20
And you think the making the language English doesn't deter cases to be filed. Or doesn't have a cost?
Calculate the translation cost for a court vs making every citizen fluent in English. Which one is more expensive?
Calculate the translation cost for a court vs making every citizen fluent in English. Which one is more expensive?
https://twitter.com/NDRSHASHI/status/1653422645759602689?s=20
English supremacy is preserved by absurd arguments like this.
Does a judge get posted to 27 states?
They just need to learn the state language they are posted to. And if they can’t do that, state should arrange interpreters for them, not force a billion people into English.
Does a judge get posted to 27 states?
They just need to learn the state language they are posted to. And if they can’t do that, state should arrange interpreters for them, not force a billion people into English.
https://twitter.com/webprogrpro/status/1653405823966535682
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