A brief discussion on the impact of omicron we're seeing in some countries currently - e.g. HK - which may seem surprising given the impact observed in South Africa and even perhaps the UK - which while v. significant, seems lower on the face of it.🧵
Some of this will no doubt stem from different vaccination rates by age in different regions - but there is possibly another important factor that may not be immediately apparent.
I want to revisit the discussions on the severity of omicron relative to delta here. As many of us discussed earlier - there are two aspects to severity:
1. intrinsic severity - what is the severity if omicron compared to delta if they infected the same people
2. observed severity- what is the impact of the fact that due to higher escape omicron is far more likely to infect someone with prior immunity (prior infection/vaccination) than delta is?
Prior infection with another variant, while not protecting against omicron infection may still protect against severe disease. The competitive advantage of omicron against delta was greater in those who had previous immunity that was *more protective* against delta than omicron.
So omicron disproportionately infected people who were vaccinated/had prior infection compared to delta. This meant that lower severity could be either due to a virus that would cause less severe disease in anyone, or because those infected were more likely to have prior immunity
Teasing these 2 effects became important- because one is an intrinsic characteristic of the virus, so can be generalised to any context- because it doesn't matter who the virus infects. But the second (prior immunity) is a characteristic of the population & will differ by region.
Studies in the UK and SA did try to do this. How did they do this? When the severity of omicron was compared to delta, past infection and vaccination status was *adjusted* for. But how does this adjustment happen?
It's a statistical process that breaks up the population into people with known prior infection, and those without, and then tries to estimate what severity relative to delta would've been in the group *without prior infection/vaccination*- because this is intrinsic severity.
Although vaccine data is usually accurate, prior infection data is often hugely flawed. Remember we didn't even have community testing till June 2020. And even after many people didn't test, or were asymptomatic, or ineligible due to restricted symptom lists for COVID-19.
So we know re-infections are *massively* underestimated. What does this mean? It means that many the population we consider as not having had prior infection may well have had it without us knowing, which makes it impossible to get to a 'pure' estimate of intrinsic severity.
Estimates of intrinsic severity become mixed in with effects of prior infection, because many prior infections are undetected, so in effect we cannot adjust for them statistically. This means we *underestimate* intrinsic severity.
The level of underestimation is dependent on the level of mixing in of the effects of undetected prior immunity - so it depends on the level of undetected re-infection among people who're unvaccinated.
The higher the level of population immunity due to infection & the lower the detection of past infections, the greater the bias in the estimate. If intrinsic severity estimates were accurate we could generalise these to other contexts because they depend on virus, not environment
The problem is we're not capturing intrinsic severity. Our estimates are mixed in with effects from prior immunity. This means we cannot take estimates from SA, or even the UK, where there is high level of population immunity and apply them to countries with much lower exposure.
'Intrinsic severity' estimates from countries with high population immunity & high undetected prior infections will generally be lower than intrinsic severity estimated in countries that have much lower levels of prior immunity from infection.
This shouldn't happen because conceptually intrinsic severity is a characteristic of the virus and shouldn't depend on external factors. But because we cannot estimate this accurately, our estimates are a mixture of intrinsic severity of the virus & who the virus infects.
This means that all else being the same (e.g. levels of vaccination), impact in terms of severity may be higher in countries with low prior exposure than that observed in countries with high prior exposure. Because intrinsic severity was underestimated in these latter contexts.
It is interesting that a study from Denmark (which had much lower exposure to SARS-CoV-2 pre-omicron) showed ~30% reduction in hospitalisation risk compared to delta (compared to other studies that suggested 50-70% reduction).
This also accords with an early study from Imperial that tried to derive an estimate of intrinsic severity by adjusting for the fact that many re-infections were undetected. They also found 30% or less reduction in hospitalisation risk relative to delta.
To be clear, Intrinsic severity of omicron is certainly lower than delta, but possibly not to the degree that studies from SA & UK suggested. To get less biased estimates, these studies will need repeating in regions with lower levels of prior infection or better detection
It's important to get to these estimates because separating out these components helps us understand & predict impact in other countries. In the meantime, it's worth remembering that estimates of intrinsic severity from the UK may not be entirely transferable to other contexts.

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More from @dgurdasani1

Mar 9
Really worth looking at what's happening in the 8-11 yr group- infections have continued to occur at a high rate (as per ONS data) in this age group- yet antibodies appear to be plateauing, and early declines being seen. This is well-described in the literature.🧵
Children *do not* develop sustained antibody responses- and the rate of seroreversion (going from antibody positivity to negativity) and antibody declines are faster than adults. Remember antibodies don't mean immunity in the first place (given the level of escape with omicron)
It is unlikely children develop lasting immunity to infection. The UKHSA data also shows this clearly, with re-infections being highest among children, with a significant proportion of BA.2 re-infections having occurred within just 3 months. Image
Read 5 tweets
Mar 8
As hospitalisations increase, it's worth again noting that testing has massively reduced as positivity has risen to 20% in England (similar to the Dec omicron wave). So cases are *massively* underestimated - and looking at dashboard numbers will underestimate risk.🧵
I worry that this is providing false re-assurance about where things are at. ONS data suggests infection rates remain high. And hospitalisations with COVID-19 are clearly rising across all age groups. BA.2, a more transmissible sub-variant of omicron has also gained dominance.
Vaccines will provide protection, but we know this protection wanes, and isn't absolute. So other additional layers are important to protect yourself
& others. While the govt no longer mandates any measures, it's important to continue to be cautious.
Read 8 tweets
Mar 8
I think it's undeniable that massacres, wars & famines in many parts of the world have been largely ignored by the west & western media- but the fact that this (keeping in mind the role of Putin in some of these) is being used by the Kremlin to distract from Ukraine is disturbing
It's clear that there's racism & inequality in reporting & responding to crises in different parts of the world. Some lives clearly have been assigned less value than others. While this is completely true, the Kremlin weaponising this to distract from their killing is wrong.
The fact that they're sharing a picture of killing that they themselves were involved in- the slaughter of civilians with chemical weapons in Syria makes them using the suffering that they themselves created all the more sickening.
Read 5 tweets
Mar 6
A key thread. As we face the shock of the Ukraine war, it's vital we also face up to the rot at the heart of UK government and erosion of democracy in the UK that continues to prop up the kleptocracy in Russia - which in turn delivered Brexit & Tory wins in our last election.
Democracies are only as good as the independence of institutions in them - vitally independent media, independent judiciary and law.. all these systems are being eroded in the UK. The information we see on the media is massively skewed - in line with vested interests.
We saw it during the Brexit referendum, during the election. During COVID-19. It's an information war, and the consequences are dire. As we're seeing in Russia at the moment, as the public gets more and more isolated by govt propaganda.
Read 7 tweets
Mar 3
Pretty shocking data from the ONS on long COVID released just now- the 4 wk long COVID estimates will include infection until end of Dec, so including the first two wks after omicron became dominant. There are clear increases in prevalence being seen already.🧵
Overall prevalence has increased to 1.5 million when considering 28 day definition - that means *2.4%* of our population. That's 1 in 42 people having persistent symptoms for 4 wks or more currently. If you consider the 12 wk definition it's still v. high- 1.7%.
685,000 people estimated to have now had persistent symptoms for *more than one year*. ~ 1 million say this affects their day to day activity to some extent. So very functionally relevant, and longstanding symptoms in a very large population.
Read 8 tweets
Mar 2
If you want to see how an 'any symptom' present or not comparisons between positive cases vs non-positive cases massively underestimates long COVID prevalence- just look at the recent ONS study that some paediatricians are astonishingly hailing as 'reassuring'. Short thread. Image
If you look at each symptom loss of smell/taste is *16%* in those who tested positive at 12 wks vs almost no one in the 'control' group which didn't have a positive test. So this would suggest that the prevalence of long COVID should be at least 16% of those infected, right?
After all if *one* symptom is present in 16% of those infected and almost none of those who didn't test positive, surely this is the *minimum* prevalence of the syndrome, right? When you consider more symptoms, this prevalence should increase not decrease.
Read 7 tweets

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