So I have some questions to ask with no agenda. I'm seeing several tweets today that "sexual preference" is an offensive term, and as a straight guy I'm a bit confused.
Wouldn't the claim that this is an offensive term itself be offensive to bi/queer people?
Wouldn't the claim that this is an offensive term itself be offensive to bi/queer people?
It would seem that saying that preference doesn't exist would be synonymous with telling bisexuals they're just confused.
And as we work to move gender away from binary descriptions, why is it either politically or scientifically beneficial to move sexuality back into a binary?
And as we work to move gender away from binary descriptions, why is it either politically or scientifically beneficial to move sexuality back into a binary?
I certainly understand that the vast majority of both straight and gay people feel strongly about their attractions and have no interest in deviating, and I agree that this is most likely built in. But that doesn't seem to mean that "sexual preference" should be offensive.
I hope asking these questions doesn't offend anyone. I'm just trying to understand, and am hopeful this can be explained to me.
So to sum up comments and DMs and feedback elsewhere it seems like the issue is using the phrase in the context of identity and general orientation where it's offensive but that this doesn't imply anything about how people express preference in any particular situation.
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