So red it can't be ʾAbū Jaʿfar. (ʾAbū ʿAmr and Nāfiʿ left).
Black could still be anyone but Ibn ʿĀmir, ʾAbū Jaʿfar Nāfiʿ andʾAbū ʿAmr.
Q18:85
red: fa-ttabaʿa (majority), fa-ʾatbaʿa (ʿĀṣim, Ḥamzah, al-Kisāʾī, Ḫalaf and ibn ʿĀmir)
Black: might be fa-ʾatbaʿa, a bit unclear. If so the reading is Kufan.
Q18:86
Here the black text clearly follows ḥāmiyatin... but the red vocalisation appears to hamzah, which is only consistent with ḥamiʾatin, which does not help us narrow it down. That's the reading of Nāfiʿ, ibn Kaṯīr, ʾAbū ʿAmr, Yaʿqūb and Ḥafṣ.
Black is starting to look clearly Kufan. Red might still be Nāfiʿ or ʾAbū ʿAmr (I'm quite sure it's gonna be ʾAbū ʿAmr).
Q18:93
Red & Black: bayna s-saddayni: reading of Ibn Kaṯīr, ʾAbū ʿAmr, and Ḥafṣ. The rest reads s-suddayni.
Therefore:
Red = ʾAbū ʿAmr
Black = Ḥafṣ ʿan ʿĀṣim
The fact the two vocalisations represent different readings is yet another argument they are not contemporary.
Anyone who can read the Persian: it would be cool if we could figure out which of the two readings the Persian commentary had in mind and whether it aligns with either the red or the black vocalisation!
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So... Japanese native numerals are *weird*. People like to talk about the doubling ablaut system
hito-tu '1' ~ huta-tu '2'
miC-tu '3' ~ muC-tu '6'
yoC-tu '4' ~ yaC-tu '8'
But that really doesn't cover all the odd exceptional behaviour found in counters...
Why:
hutu-ka "2 days" not huta-ka?
why miC-ka "3 days" but not muC-ka but muika "six days"
Why yoC-ka "4 days" but not yaC-ka but youka"8 days"
(and why nano-ka "seven days" while it is nanatsu?)
I see no obvious reconstruction that accounts for those irregularities.
Is there any article that tries to account historically for these unusual irregularities?
Besides the crazy lām-ʾalif what's cool about this manuscript is that the persian uses 'modern' vocalisaiton, while the Quranic citations use the red dot system of Kufic manuscripts.
But seemingly a later hand added modern vocalisations to it too. 🧵
The ink of the modern black vowels added looks kind of similar to the main text, so I wondered whether both the red dots and black signs where put in by the same person. But the red dots and 'normal' vowels were done by different people, and you can tell from the lām-ʾalif.
In the earliest vocalised Kufic manuscripts -- and this is a practice that continues in Maghrebi script -- the leg at the top LEFT is the lām and the top RIGHT is the ʾalif.
This is the ancient pre-Islamic practice, inherited from Nabataean.
Ibn Ḫālawayh (d. 381 AH) was one of the Ibn Mujāhid's students, and several important works of his have come down to us. One of these is his al-Ḥujjah fī al-Qirāʾāt as-Sabʿ "The Justification of the Seven Readings", and it is WEIRD. It keeps citing non-canonical readings! 🧵
The Ḥujjah could be called a "grammatical exegesis". It analyses all the variant readings where the seven readings disagree with one another, and explains why one would read one way or the other, and what those entail in meaning or grammatical choice.
Exegesis does this more commonly, but grammatical exegeses (or tawjīh/ḥujjah works works as one might call them) like these, are hyper-focused specifically on the points of disagreement.
Ibn Ḫālawayh ostensibly focuses on the seven readers canonized by his Teacher.
Early Islamic pious inscriptions frequently use the formula aḷḷāhumma ṣallī ʿalā fulān "O God, bless so-and-so."
As in the example here:
aḷḷāhumma ṣallī (صلي!) ʿalā l-qāsimi bni muḥammadin
By Classical Arabic standards this is a mistake, but we see it frequently. Thread 🧵
Inscriptional formulae tend to start with a vocative aḷḷāhumma "O God" or rabb-i "O my Lord" followed by an imperative, as seen in the frequent اللهم اغفر لفلان Aḷḷāhumma ġfir li-fulānin "O God, forgive so-and-so".
ġafara li- is by far the most common, and not remarkable.
But the ṣallī form that we opened with in the first post present a problem. Imperatives in final weak verbs should shorten the long vowel we see in the imperfect. So it is ṣallā "he blessed", yuṣallī "he blesses", ṣalli "bless!" But this should be spelled صل, not صلي!
I thought I had figured out an important verbal group, and presented about it today... and then I ran into Simone Mauri's description of Ayt Atta #Tamazight.
What I'm interested in is how to reconstruct the Aorist and perfect of verbs with two long vowels. A small thread.
Most forms of Central Moroccan Tamazight have an a...u vocalism for both the Aorist and perfect (just like Tashlhiyt). From there I had thought of a way to reconcile the Kabyle form ulwu/ulwa with the Tamaight alwu alwu. I proposed a three step analogy:
1. Start with ulwu/ulwa 2. Through analogy of verbs like agʷəm/ugəm, the aorist was reformed to alwu: alwu/ulwa. 3. The aorist stem was generalized to the perfect: alwu/alwu.
But this explanation totally breaks down for Ayt Atta!
In a well-known Hadith, the prophet is said to have heard the recitation of ʾAbū Mūsā and said: laqad ʾūtiya hāḏā min mazāmīr ʾāli dāwūd "This man has been given of the sweet voices (flutes) of the house of David" sunnah.com/nasai:1020
There might be a biblical subtext here🧵
As @bnuyaminim pointed out to me, David is explicitly described in 1 Chronicles 25 to have appointed temple musicians. Could the mazāmīr ʾāl Dāwūd be referring to these temple musicians? The use of the word mazāmīr here may also significant.
Where zamara only refers to playing wind instruments in Arabic, the Aramaic zmar primarily means 'to sing', a meaning more readily obvious in the current context.
mazāmīr may also be the plural of mazmūr 'psalm', and the psalms are traditionally closely related to David.