Early Islamic pious inscriptions frequently use the formula aḷḷāhumma ṣallī ʿalā fulān "O God, bless so-and-so."
As in the example here:
aḷḷāhumma ṣallī (صلي!) ʿalā l-qāsimi bni muḥammadin
By Classical Arabic standards this is a mistake, but we see it frequently. Thread 🧵
Inscriptional formulae tend to start with a vocative aḷḷāhumma "O God" or rabb-i "O my Lord" followed by an imperative, as seen in the frequent اللهم اغفر لفلان Aḷḷāhumma ġfir li-fulānin "O God, forgive so-and-so".
ġafara li- is by far the most common, and not remarkable.
But the ṣallī form that we opened with in the first post present a problem. Imperatives in final weak verbs should shorten the long vowel we see in the imperfect. So it is ṣallā "he blessed", yuṣallī "he blesses", ṣalli "bless!" But this should be spelled صل, not صلي!
The Quran consistently applies this rule correctly, as any Muslim who has memorized the Fātiḥah will know. It is اهدنا ihdi-nā NOT اهدينا ihdī-nā.
Likewise Q2:61 is فادع fa-dʿu not فادعوا fa-dʿū
Q2:104 رعنا rāʿi-nā not رعينا rāʿī-nā
Q2:144 فول fa-walli not فولي fa-wallī
So did our scribe of the inscription we cited just commit a grammatical error? By modern day standards, sure. But an in-depth study of the early Islamic inscriptions makes it clear that this was not an error, but the standard. Time and time again you find this spelling.
In fact, I've looked at many inscriptions, and not a single time have I found an exception to this rule. The imperative of ṣallā is *always* spelled صلي and never صل.
This tells us that in early Islamic times this was the correct, normative, standard spelling.
But this brings us at an interesting conundrum, one that still lacks a satisfying explanation. Why is it that the orthographic/grammatical norms of the hundreds of pious inscriptions are *consistently* different from the orthographic/grammatical norms of the Quran?
What eventually becomes Classical Arabic norms, absolutely agrees with the Quranic nor. But inscriptions... no. And we can't explain the inscriptions as the result of ignorance. Making inscriptions is hard work and the CONSISTENT use of the "wrong" spelling is significant here.
I don't have a satisfying ending to this thread. It's clear that the linguistic standard used in inscriptions is different from that of the Quran and Classical Arabic. This is surprising, and needs to be addressed.
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Addendum: I should've probably mentioned explicitly that ṣalli is actually attested in the Quran, and spelled as expected without the final yāʾ!
I thought I had figured out an important verbal group, and presented about it today... and then I ran into Simone Mauri's description of Ayt Atta #Tamazight.
What I'm interested in is how to reconstruct the Aorist and perfect of verbs with two long vowels. A small thread.
Most forms of Central Moroccan Tamazight have an a...u vocalism for both the Aorist and perfect (just like Tashlhiyt). From there I had thought of a way to reconcile the Kabyle form ulwu/ulwa with the Tamaight alwu alwu. I proposed a three step analogy:
1. Start with ulwu/ulwa 2. Through analogy of verbs like agʷəm/ugəm, the aorist was reformed to alwu: alwu/ulwa. 3. The aorist stem was generalized to the perfect: alwu/alwu.
But this explanation totally breaks down for Ayt Atta!
In a well-known Hadith, the prophet is said to have heard the recitation of ʾAbū Mūsā and said: laqad ʾūtiya hāḏā min mazāmīr ʾāli dāwūd "This man has been given of the sweet voices (flutes) of the house of David" sunnah.com/nasai:1020
There might be a biblical subtext here🧵
As @bnuyaminim pointed out to me, David is explicitly described in 1 Chronicles 25 to have appointed temple musicians. Could the mazāmīr ʾāl Dāwūd be referring to these temple musicians? The use of the word mazāmīr here may also significant.
Where zamara only refers to playing wind instruments in Arabic, the Aramaic zmar primarily means 'to sing', a meaning more readily obvious in the current context.
mazāmīr may also be the plural of mazmūr 'psalm', and the psalms are traditionally closely related to David.
Some of the controversy about @MMetaphysician feeling not feeling he was the right person to defend the grammar of the Quran, appeared on my timeline after this conversation.
I figured I'd add some thoughts about "mistakes" in the Quran, as a linguist. 🧵
First it is worth noting that to a linguist "grammatical mistakes" don't really make much sense. Native speakers do not make mistakes. They speak the way they speak, and other people might speak differently. Those other people might have the power to impose norms on them.
But objectively there is no way to decide which of these is "better":
"I am not an expert."
"I ain't an expert."
"I ain't no expert."
All of these are perfectly acceptable ways to speak English, and that one of these is considered "standard" is just an accident of history.
The Dalāʾil al-Ḫayrāt was composed by the Moroccan Berber Muḥammad al-Jazūlī in the 9th/15th century, and from then until today is probably the most popular Islamic prayer book. Any library that has an oriental collection at all, is likely to have several copies.
I stumbled on this topic utterly by accident. I was browsing through a collection of Malian manuscripts, when I stumbled upon this text (eap.bl.uk/archive-file/E…), and I noticed a really odd feature... On the 2nd line, we see the word اكثركم "most of you", but that vocalisation
@koutchoukalimar@DerMenschensohn Bellamy's emendation articles are notoriously terrible. It's really quite impressive how much this man manages to get wrong in so little space...
As for your point about reading derived from the text or no, it's a bit more subtle...
@koutchoukalimar@DerMenschensohn The Uthmanic text is very ambiguous, many words could be read in many different ways. But it's not so ambiguous that it would lead to utter chaos. The Quran is much like the papyri, whose aim was certainly to be understood as well.
@koutchoukalimar@DerMenschensohn So yes, you *could* read Q2:2 as ḏālika l-kabābu lā zayta fīhi "That is the kabab in which there is no oil" by redotting... but I don't think anyone attempting to read the Quran with no knowledge would fail to read the text proper, purely from context. No oral tradition needed.
Sūrat Maryam (Q19) is well-known among scholars of the Quran for having a highly conspicuous passage (quran.com/19/34-40) which must be an interpolation.
The question however is: when was this section interpolated into the Quran? Manuscript evidence can give us some hints.🧵
Many scholars as early as Nöldeke and as recent as Guillaume Dye have pointed to these verses as looking like a conspicuous interpolation. And indeed the section really stands out for several reasons:
1. The rhyme scheme of Maryam is:
1-33: -iyyā
34-40: -UM (ūn/īm/īn)
35-74: -iyyā
75-98: -dā
In other words our passage abruptly disrupts the consistent (and unique to this Sūrah) rhyme -iyyā.
This is atypical for the Quran and makes the section stand out.