I thought I had figured out an important verbal group, and presented about it today... and then I ran into Simone Mauri's description of Ayt Atta #Tamazight.
What I'm interested in is how to reconstruct the Aorist and perfect of verbs with two long vowels. A small thread.
Most forms of Central Moroccan Tamazight have an a...u vocalism for both the Aorist and perfect (just like Tashlhiyt). From there I had thought of a way to reconcile the Kabyle form ulwu/ulwa with the Tamaight alwu alwu. I proposed a three step analogy:
1. Start with ulwu/ulwa 2. Through analogy of verbs like agʷəm/ugəm, the aorist was reformed to alwu: alwu/ulwa. 3. The aorist stem was generalized to the perfect: alwu/alwu.
But this explanation totally breaks down for Ayt Atta!
The Aorist is actually the same in Kabyle and Ayt Atta, but the Perfect has perfectly opposite vocalism ulwa in Kabyle, alwu in Ayt Atta. I honestly see no obvious path to reconcile these two.
uɣul has the same a-u perfect. Kabyle (if it is cognate) generalize the perfect stem.
And this problem extends not just to verbs with two u vowels in the aorist, but also to verbs with two i vowels in the Aorist!
Kabyle and Ayt Atta nicely shared the Aorist form irid, but again the Perfect has the mirrored vocalism urad versus arud.
This happens again in Kb. inig/unag and Ayt Atta inig/anug.
I can see two paths to explain this, but see no obvious way to prefer one over the other...
Path 1: Ayt Atta has the archaic form.
Path 2: Kabyle has the archaic form.
Path 1: Kabyle is innovative by introducing the common Ə-A vocalism of the perfect to verbs of this type.
Initial plain vowels become u in the perfect: agʷəm/ugəm 'to draw water'
medial or final u becomes a in the perfect:
mdu/mda 'to finish'.
Then Ayt Atta would be archaic.
Path 2: Ayt Atta is innovative by introducing the A-Ə vocalism of the perfect common for stative verbs.
u/iCCuC verbs have a historical ăCCuC perfect (ă is lost, but corresponds to long vowel a in Ayt Atta).
From there one might deduce that a verb urad should actually be arud. But this is fairly abstract, and I would rather expect rud than arud in case of analogy.
It is difficult to predict at what stage it happened, if early enough it might be possible, then Kabyle would be archaic.
This is purely focusing on Kabyle and Ayt Atta and their irreconcilable vocalisms. But both of them are still difficult to rhyme with Tuareg irad/ărid and Zenatic, e.g. Figuig rid/rid (though Zenatic and Tuareg seem easy to reconcile).
Any way, it's back to the drawing board for some of the verbs that I discussed today in the presentation I gave for the Berber Languages and Linguistics seminar.
Early Islamic pious inscriptions frequently use the formula aḷḷāhumma ṣallī ʿalā fulān "O God, bless so-and-so."
As in the example here:
aḷḷāhumma ṣallī (صلي!) ʿalā l-qāsimi bni muḥammadin
By Classical Arabic standards this is a mistake, but we see it frequently. Thread 🧵
Inscriptional formulae tend to start with a vocative aḷḷāhumma "O God" or rabb-i "O my Lord" followed by an imperative, as seen in the frequent اللهم اغفر لفلان Aḷḷāhumma ġfir li-fulānin "O God, forgive so-and-so".
ġafara li- is by far the most common, and not remarkable.
But the ṣallī form that we opened with in the first post present a problem. Imperatives in final weak verbs should shorten the long vowel we see in the imperfect. So it is ṣallā "he blessed", yuṣallī "he blesses", ṣalli "bless!" But this should be spelled صل, not صلي!
In a well-known Hadith, the prophet is said to have heard the recitation of ʾAbū Mūsā and said: laqad ʾūtiya hāḏā min mazāmīr ʾāli dāwūd "This man has been given of the sweet voices (flutes) of the house of David" sunnah.com/nasai:1020
There might be a biblical subtext here🧵
As @bnuyaminim pointed out to me, David is explicitly described in 1 Chronicles 25 to have appointed temple musicians. Could the mazāmīr ʾāl Dāwūd be referring to these temple musicians? The use of the word mazāmīr here may also significant.
Where zamara only refers to playing wind instruments in Arabic, the Aramaic zmar primarily means 'to sing', a meaning more readily obvious in the current context.
mazāmīr may also be the plural of mazmūr 'psalm', and the psalms are traditionally closely related to David.
Some of the controversy about @MMetaphysician feeling not feeling he was the right person to defend the grammar of the Quran, appeared on my timeline after this conversation.
I figured I'd add some thoughts about "mistakes" in the Quran, as a linguist. 🧵
First it is worth noting that to a linguist "grammatical mistakes" don't really make much sense. Native speakers do not make mistakes. They speak the way they speak, and other people might speak differently. Those other people might have the power to impose norms on them.
But objectively there is no way to decide which of these is "better":
"I am not an expert."
"I ain't an expert."
"I ain't no expert."
All of these are perfectly acceptable ways to speak English, and that one of these is considered "standard" is just an accident of history.
The Dalāʾil al-Ḫayrāt was composed by the Moroccan Berber Muḥammad al-Jazūlī in the 9th/15th century, and from then until today is probably the most popular Islamic prayer book. Any library that has an oriental collection at all, is likely to have several copies.
I stumbled on this topic utterly by accident. I was browsing through a collection of Malian manuscripts, when I stumbled upon this text (eap.bl.uk/archive-file/E…), and I noticed a really odd feature... On the 2nd line, we see the word اكثركم "most of you", but that vocalisation
@koutchoukalimar@DerMenschensohn Bellamy's emendation articles are notoriously terrible. It's really quite impressive how much this man manages to get wrong in so little space...
As for your point about reading derived from the text or no, it's a bit more subtle...
@koutchoukalimar@DerMenschensohn The Uthmanic text is very ambiguous, many words could be read in many different ways. But it's not so ambiguous that it would lead to utter chaos. The Quran is much like the papyri, whose aim was certainly to be understood as well.
@koutchoukalimar@DerMenschensohn So yes, you *could* read Q2:2 as ḏālika l-kabābu lā zayta fīhi "That is the kabab in which there is no oil" by redotting... but I don't think anyone attempting to read the Quran with no knowledge would fail to read the text proper, purely from context. No oral tradition needed.
Sūrat Maryam (Q19) is well-known among scholars of the Quran for having a highly conspicuous passage (quran.com/19/34-40) which must be an interpolation.
The question however is: when was this section interpolated into the Quran? Manuscript evidence can give us some hints.🧵
Many scholars as early as Nöldeke and as recent as Guillaume Dye have pointed to these verses as looking like a conspicuous interpolation. And indeed the section really stands out for several reasons:
1. The rhyme scheme of Maryam is:
1-33: -iyyā
34-40: -UM (ūn/īm/īn)
35-74: -iyyā
75-98: -dā
In other words our passage abruptly disrupts the consistent (and unique to this Sūrah) rhyme -iyyā.
This is atypical for the Quran and makes the section stand out.