In the coming weeks I'll probably do some thread summarizing the main points of the book's chapters. But for now a quick summary.
This book asks the question: what is the language of the Quran, and how do we know?
The traditional answer has always been "Classical Arabic", but in my book I show that this term is extremely poorly defined.
And even whenever people say this they almost never mean it in a way that makes sense in the time that the book was written.
I then turn to the Quranic reading traditions: what can they tell us about the language of the Quran?
As it turns out, they give many mutually incompatible linguistic options, and purely on the basis of these it is difficult to adjudicate which is more representative.
So I propose to instead focus on what we can derive from the one portion of the text that we can reliably date to the very earliest period, namely the consonantal text. Examining the linguistic features of its orthography, rhyme and structure...
we can compare this against what, for example, we find in pre-Islamic Arabic as well as what the medieval grammarians report for the different dialects. Doing so a strikingly consistent picture emerges: in virtually all its linguistic features the Quran reflects a Hijazi dialect.
This is not surprising, the Quran comes from the Hijaz. And this functions as extra evidence for that.
However what is surprising is that you would not get that result if you would go from the Quranic reading traditions, which contain many non-Hijazi features.
Thus there seems to have been a movement from the Hijazi origins of the Quranic language towards the language of the reading traditions which (artificially) incorporated all kinds of non-Hijazi features. The last chapters search for traces of this "Classicization" of the readings
That is the short summary of what the book is about. It gets into lot of nitty gritty details. But feel free to ask questions!
And of course I immediately spot a totally incoherent sentence in the final version (pg. 10; read CE for the first " early manuscripts").
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One of the frustrating things about Afro-Asiatic is that, despite all the great morpheme comparisons, it is really hard to reconstruct vocabulary, at all.
I keep a list of cognates that I myself find compelling, between the two families I know best, Berber & Semitic.
Within the Islamic context, where adopting Islamic names is common, it is not unthinkable isəm is actually an early loan from Arabic. But indistinguishable from a cognate.
This root is of course one of the few really well-attested cognates in Afro-Asiatic. The Berber conjugation is highly irregular, no other verb behaves like it.
A beautiful classical example of assimilation of parallels in Q67:11 of Saray medina 1a.
The canonical text reads فاعترفوا بذنبهم fa-ʿtarafū bi-ḏambihim "So they acknowledge their sin", and that's what the manuscript currently reads, but clearly not what it always read! 🧵
First there is an unusually large gap between the ḏāl and the nūn, and you can see traces of removed text.
Moreover, the denticle of the nūn appears to have been added later (not quite as obvious, but obvious enough).
What the scribe obviously originally wrote is not بذنبهم ḏambihim in the singular, but rather بذنوبهم bi-ḏunūbihim "their sinS". That's not how any canonical readers recite it, nor have I found evidence for non-canonical readers of this kind. But it is an easy mistake to make.
A fascinating and, likely, extremely early rendering of Sūrat al-ʾIḫlāṣ, both remarkable for its not-quite-canonical wording AND its pre-Islamic spelling practices.
A thread on what information can be gleaned from it 🧵
The basmalah is unremarkable, but the first verse is different from from the canonical reading. Rather than:
qul huwa ḷḷāhu ʾaḥadun قول هو الله احد "He is Allah, the one" the text reads: الله لا احد, which, at first blush might look like it says: God, not one ?
Is this verse espousing an anti-monotheistic version of al-ʾIḫlāṣ? No. In pre-Islamic inscriptions, and occasionally in early Arabic manuscripts the asseverative particle la- before a word with a hamzah is, for some reason written with لا.
The Quran has a written form and recited forms. Its written form remained more or less unchanged. But the recited forms were sometimes at odds with what is written in the text.
A thread on what scribes did to alleviate these conflicts, in early Quranic manuscripts.🧵
Conflicts between the written and the recited should be familiar to those who know the Hebrew Bible, which shows a peculiar interplay between the standard written text (ktiv), and its recitation (qre) which are not infrequently at odds with one another.
Such differences are marked with marginal ktiv-qre notes. Notes that point out that the word written is to be recited differently.
In Josh 13:16 the written באדם "at Adam", has a ktiv-qre note in the margin to point out it should be read מאדם "from Adam".
The so-called yāʾāt maḥḏūfah min al-ḫaṭṭ "the yāʾs removed from the writing". This concerns words that in Classical Arabic would typically end in a yāʾ (i.e. /ī/), but in the Quranic are written without.
Readers have different ways of dealing with this missing yāʾ 🧵
The yāʾ that gets dropped can be of all kinds of categories:
- Verbs: Q89:4 يسر for CAr. yasrī
- Nouns: Q89:9 بالواد for CAr. bi-l-wādī
- The 1sg. object pronoun: Q26:81 يحيين for CAr. yuḥyī-nī
- The 1sg. possessive pronoun: Q109:6 دين for CAr. dīn-ī
When one examines the places where such cases of /-ī/ get dropped, a fairly clear pattern emerges. In the vast majority of the cases it happens: 1. In verse final position 2. Before a pause mid-verse 3. With vocative (like يقوم "o my people")
A strange bit of misinformed apologetics has been making the rounds on Twitter that claims the Dead Sea Isaiah Scroll (1QIsaª) (Is. 42:1) mentions ʾAḥmad (traditionally understood to be Muḥammad) of Q61:6. This is false, but figuring out what is happening is interesting. So 🧵
Let's first take a moment to appreciate what the significance of Isaiah 42:1. The Synoptic gospels ( Mathew 3:17, Mark 1:11 & Luke 3:22) cite a Greek adaptation of this verse at the Baptism of Jesus:
"You are my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased"
This is clearly quite close to the Hebrew of the old testament Isaiah 42:1 "Behold My Servant, whom I uphold; Mine elect, in whom My soul delights." and is understood to refer to it.
The fourth gospel, John, lacks this reference (this will become important later).