More of an article outline than a thread, but tweeting about an idea is more fun than looking up which 19th-century German already published it. So: a thread about the h in ʔĕlōhīm/allåhå/ʔilāh- etc. ‘god’, and why the #Hebrew word is morphologically plural. 1/20
Proto-#Semitic for ‘god’ can be reconstructed as *ʔil-, without *h. This is clear from #Akkadian il-, #Ugaritic i͗l, Hebrew ʔēl, maybe some others. Those last two are used both as common nouns and as names, uppercase-G ‘God’, ‘El’. 2/20
Meanwhile, there’s this other form, which reconstructs as *ʔilāh- (unchanged in Classical #Arabic). This is the basic word for ‘god, deity’ in Arabic and #Aramaic, e.g. Biblical Aramaic ʔĕlāh, #Syriac aloho/allåhå. 3/20
In Biblical Hebrew, this word is also used (both as a common noun and a name/title), but it looks plural: ʔĕlōh-īm with the masculine plural ending. Syntactically, though, it’s singular: b-rēšīṯ *bārā* ʔĕlōhīm ‘in the beginning, God *created (sg.)*’. 4/20
(A morphologically singular form ʔĕlōah also exists, almost only in poetry. It’s only really frequent in Job, where it could be an Aramaicism.) 5/20
ʔĕlōhīm can also be used with plural reference. It looks the same but takes plural agreement, as in ʔĕlōhīm ʔattem ‘ye are gods’ (Ps 82:6). You can also pluralize it in other languages, e.g. Biblical Aramaic ʔĕlāh-īn, Classical Arabic ʔālihat-. 6/20
That Arabic form is an example of a broken plural. These plurals have a different stem from the singular, with the same radical consonants inserted into a different vowel pattern. Textbook example: sg. malik- pl. mulūk- ‘king(s)’: pattern changes from CaCiC- to CuCūC-. 7/20
There are many different broken plural patterns. All of them need at least three radical consonants to be well-formed. One of the more common ones is CiCāC-, like Arabic raǧul- ‘man’, riǧāl- ‘men’. How would you form that from a stem with only two consonants, like *ʔil-? 8/20
One strategy for pluralizing words with two consonants is to add *h as a third radical. For something that isn’t quite a broken plural, we see this in sg. *ʔam-at-, pl. *ʔamah-āt- ‘slavegirl(s)’. 9/20
Another example is Syriac sg. šm-å, pl. šmåh-åṯå ‘name(s)’ (similar forms elsewhere in Aramaic). This could actually go back to *simāh-āt-, which looks like a CiCāC broken plural with a feminine plural ending added redundantly. 10/20
In the same way, *ʔilāh- could be a broken plural of *ʔil-. But then why does it mean ‘god’ and not plural ‘gods’? For starters, there’s a parallel in #Geez ʔamlāk ‘god’; the ʔaCCāC pattern is unambiguously plural, yet the word has a singular meaning. 11/20
If the Ge‘ez word is really a parallel and not somehow related, it could be that words for ‘god’ were likely to be formed as plurals out of respect (the “majestic plural”). But there’s another option: reanalysis. 12/20
In Classical Arabic, verbs that precede the subject are always in the singular. So while you’d distinguish ar-raǧulu yaqūlu ‘the man says’ from ar-riǧālu yaqūlūna ‘the men say’, it’s the same verb in both yaqūlu ar-raǧulu and yaqūlu ar-riǧālu. 13/20
This rule left traces in Biblical Hebrew and may be old (also because it’s hard to see how to innovate that). If so, a sentence like *li-yaðkur ʔilāhum would have been ambiguous between ‘may the gods remember’ and ‘may (the/a) god remember’. Easy to reanalyze *ʔilāh- as sg. 14/20
If a plural doesn’t have the masculine plural ending, many Semitic languages redundantly add it before possessive suffixes. I think Kogan (…w-degruyter-com.ezproxy.leidenuniv.nl/document/doi/1…: 109) is right to reconstruct this for Proto-Semitic, maybe also after broken plurals. 15/20
If so, we would have a reconstructed paradigm like this. As a word that is morphologically a broken plural, *ʔilāh- is inflected as a singular in the absolute and construct state, but adds the masculine plural ending *-ū/ī- before suffixes. 16/20
Hebrew levels the form with the masculine plural ending, creating the new absolute state ʔĕlōh-īm and construct state ʔĕlōh-ē. The old unsuffixed form *ʔilāh- > ʔĕlōah is preserved as an archaism. 17/20
Aramaic and Arabic happen to be the two languages that get rid of the redundant linking vowels before suffixes: ‘your daughters’ is bnāṯ-ḵōn and banāt-u-kum, not **bnāṯ-ē-ḵōn or **banāt-ū-kum like e.g. Hebrew bnōṯ-ē-ḵem. This makes *ʔilāh- look completely singular. 18/20
Aramaic ʔĕlāh-īn, Arabic ʔālihat-, and syntactically plural Hebrew ʔĕlōh-īm are then formally plurals-of-plurals: once *ʔilāh- had shifted from ‘gods’ to ‘god’, you have to pluralize that again to get ‘gods’. 19/20
So: if we assume that *ʔilāh- was originally the broken plural of *ʔil- but shifted in meaning to singular ‘god’, we can explain the *-āh-, the plural morphology in Hebrew, and how it became the unmarked singular in Aramaic and Arabic. 20/20
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The #Deltacron tweet made a big impression on me yesterday and I've been thinking about letter names ever since. One thing to note is that we like to pretend we know what the #Phoenician letter names were, but we don't really. Most of the names you see are actually #Hebrew. 1/10
That goes for names like "aleph". Sometimes you'll see reconstructed forms, like "ʾalp", which are closer to the #Greek names and partially also attested in the Septuagint of Psalm 119 (118 in Gk)—but there they're actually Hebrew too, of course. 2/10 en.katabiblon.com/us/index.php?t…
One place where the Greek and Semitic letter names show weird correspondences is with the sibilants. @pd_myers has recently published on this (paywall): academic.oup.com/jss/article/64… 3/10
Crazy #Syriac word of the day, from our class reading yesterday: ܚܙܐܘܝܗܝ ḥzauy 'they saw him' (transcriptions again reflect West Syriac pronunciation). More letters in Syriac than in transcription! I wrote about the redundant suffix two weeks ago: 1/10
The III-weak plural ending ܘ- -aw as in ܚܙܘ ḥzaw 'they saw' turns into -au- before suffixes, written -ܐܘ- -ʔw- with an extra alaph to spell the hiatus (two vowels in a row). At least, this is the traditional explanation; forms like *ḥzaw-y turning to ḥzauy. 2/10
In 2010, Aaron Butts questioned this development in an article on the adverbial ending ܐܝܬ- -oiṯ, which shows the same change if it goes back to *-āyt (as seems most likely): 3/10 academia.edu/1432991/The_Et…
After a summary of his original argument, @IdanDershowitz moves on to discussing some major points of criticism.
Against my argument that V contradicts the literary reconstructions Idan cites, he states that it agrees with them for 97%. Not sure whether this is a rhetorical figure or what it is based on otherwise. IMO, the disagreements are important, things like:
A few words on how the #Qumran sect referred to the #Pharisees, whom they did *not* like.
Their writings often refer to the דורשי חלקות *dōrešē ḥalāqōt 'seekers/interpreters of smooth things'. This appears to be the Dead Sea Scrolls' most common term for the Pharisees. 1/5
It is probably a pun on דורשי הלכות *dōrešē halākōt 'interpreters of halakhot (= Pharisaic/Rabbinic rules)'. With the weakened pronunciation of the gutturals /ḥ/ and /h/ known from these texts, it was probably even more hilarious. It implies the Pharisees wanted easy rules. 2/5
Pesher Nahum (3–4 ii 1–2) uses this term besides two others: "'Woe to the city of blood; it is full of lies and rapine': its interpretation is the city of Ephraim, those who seek smooth things during the last days, who walk in lies and falsehood". ('Walking' again is √hlk.) 3/5
Based on #Hebrew and #Arabic, we reconstruct a slightly irregular paradigm for the prefix conjugation for Pr-Cntrl-#Semitic, where the 3rd radical is lost word-finally:
imperfect *ta-bniy-u 'you build'; but
imperative *bni 'build!' 1/7
In Arabic, the *-iyu of the imperfect contracts to -ī, while the imperative adds i- before the cluster:
imperfect *ta-bniy-u > tabnī
imperative *bni > ibni
The #Hebrew and #Aramaic vocalization sign shwa is sometimes read as a reduced vowel (hence the phonetic term schwa). Other times, it indicates the absence of any vowel. The rules are pretty clear, but there's some disagreement over words ending in 2 consonants with shwa. 1/6
For example, should Biblical Aramaic אַנְתְּה 'you (m.sg.)' be read as Ɂant or Ɂantə? (Yes, there's an extra ה at the end and yes, the Masoretes read shwa as a full vowel, not [ə]; that's all not relevant right now, you know what I mean.) 2/6
We can actually tell that no vowel was read in these cases from the lack of spirantization of following consonants. In #Daniel 4:15, for example, the vocalization has וְאַ֨נְתְּה בֵּלְטְשַׁאצַּ֜ר wə-Ɂant bēlṭəšaṣṣar and וְאַ֣נְתְּה כָּהֵ֔ל wə-Ɂant kāhēl. 3/6