A lot of time gets wasted on the polemics of the stability of transmission of the Hebrew Bible and the Quran.
Instead of arguing without evidence let's compare a section the Masoretic Text to a 1QIsaª and the Cairo standard text to the Codex Parisino-Petropolitanus. 🧵
I've selected a 1QIsaª because it is really quite close to the standard Masoretic text. The point of comparison are Isaiah 40:2-28 (949 letters in total) and the Q3:24-37 (1041 letters in total). In number of letters they are therefore pretty similar.
Here is a comparison of the Isaiah scroll with the Masoretic text. Green = extra letter in the scroll, yellow = missing letter, blue = different letter, magenta and red are later additions and deletions.

The texts are very similar, but regardless differences are visible.
Now compare this to a larger portion of text in terms of characters in the CPP (produced somewhere between 650 and 700 CE) compared to the standard text of 1924CE. The difference is striking. 11x a letter is missing compared to the standard text, 3x times there is an extra letter
Every single difference between the standard text and the CPP concerns a the same letter: the ʾalif, a letter that came to be more commonly written in later Arabic. The Hebrew portion concerns a myriad of different letters and sometimes even different words.
The difference in time between 1QIsaª (1st c. BCE) and the Masoretic text (10th c. CE) is pretty comparable to the Cairo Edition and the CPP, yet the difference in the stability of the text is vastly different.
This difference isn't miraculous: the Quran's text was canonized early and had state support to maintain that to its minute details in a way that the Hebrew Bible (not to speak of the new testament!) simply was not.

I hope this visual presentation brings that point home.
You can check out 1QIsaª here: dss.collections.imj.org.il/isaiah (column 33 is the relevant section).
the CPP here: gallica.bnf.fr/ark:/12148/btv… (3r and some of 3v is the relevant section).
Continued: Some replies have pointed out that comparing 1QIsaª against the standard text and comparing that to early Quranic manuscripts and the print edition isn't quite a faire comparison, because 1QIsaª is quite exceptional in its deviations from the Masoretic text.
This is true. If we would do the same exercise with 1QIsaᵇ which is of the Proto-Masoretic text type (same as the standard text today) we would see a quite similar result as the one we see between the CPP and the modern Cairo print. Images from Tov (1992).
But the important point of this: When it comes to the Quran, you cannot even pick an unfair comparison. Up until now there is only one text that doesn't belong to the Uthmanic tradition (the lower text of the Sanaa Palimpsest). All the other ones are virtually identical.
In fact if we pick two roughly contemporary (7th century) manuscripts like Or. 2165 and the CPP, the similarity is striking. Here I have marked all the differences between Q7:42-53 in these two manuscripts in Yellow.

(you've not gone colour blind, there are no differences)
So what about this Sanaa Palimpsest? How dissimilar is it from the Uthmanic text type? We can compare the lower and upper text of the same section and see how similar they are: This is the end of Q8:73 up to the beginning of Q9:7. Despite differences the texts are still close.
The closeness of the two texts is enough that by Biblical standards (and certainly by New Testament standards) these two texts would presumably be considered the same text type. By Quranic standards this kind of deviation is totally unheard of outside of the palimpsest.

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More from @PhDniX

18 Nov
@theodorebeers @ibn_kato The rule according to the Arab grammarians, and normative Classical Arabic is that after a heavy syllable the suffixes should be -hu/-hi, and after short syllables the suffixes should be -hū/-hī. This is not just as poetry, but also prose (including the Quran).
@theodorebeers @ibn_kato In fact poetry is one of the prime contexts that are cited where the rule might be broken and short vowel -hu and -hi may be used after light syllables, and -hū and -hī may be used after heavy syllables!
@theodorebeers @ibn_kato Especially Maghrebi manuscripts, but occasionally also Mashreqi manuscripts can be quite precise about this. Here funūni-hī with miniature yāʾ on top of the hāʾ to mark length in a copy of Risālat ibn Abī Zayd.
Strangely manners for expressing this were never developed for -hū. Image
Read 4 tweets
13 Nov
One of the features of the Quran is that certain words with no obvious rhyme or reason will occur in two different pronunciations even when the formula is essentially identical from one to the other.

This is most notable between Q18:78 and 82.

How to understand this? Thread 🧵
The end of the verse is identical save for the first occurrence having the long form of tastaṭiʿ and the second having the short form tasṭiʿ.

Of course you can come up with endless completely ad hoc case-by-case explanations, but these bring us no closer to *understanding* it.
There are many cases just like this. Q6:42 and Q7:94 are formulaically parallel, yet one has yataḍarraʿūna whereas the other has yaḍḍarraʿūna.

quran.com/6/42
quran.com/7/94

Case-by-case explanations fail to explain the larger pattern that is clearly there.
Read 13 tweets
27 Oct
@AlCabbage045 @SWANA_Heat @azforeman Sure, Classical Arabic was a thing way before colonialism. But I do think you can make a case that expectations of modernism clashing with the existing diglossia have massively exacerbated the problem.

In the Middle Ages Classical Arabic was for a specific learned class.
@AlCabbage045 @SWANA_Heat @azforeman And that didn't even necessarily include all those who were literate. There why "Middle Arabic" as "the stage between old and new arabic" and "the stage between low and high arabic" get mixed up. In the middle ages non-use of Classical Arabic in writing was somehow more typical.
@AlCabbage045 @SWANA_Heat @azforeman As nationalism as a concept developed, and the idea of a monolithic 'standard language', which due to the sociolinguistics couldn't be anything but the language that up until then was reserved for the highest of the highest worldwide religious elite, really made things difficult.
Read 4 tweets
27 Oct
The first word of Q36:30 is read by all canonical readers as yā-ḥasratan 'O woe!' And this is also the reading we find in the main (red) reading in Arabe 352h, however in blue a different reading is marked, a non-canonical reading that doesn't follow the rasm. Image
A little blue yāʾ has been added to the tāʾ marbūṭah and a kasrah stands below it, marking يا حسرتى yā-ḥasrat-ē "O my woe!" This expression occurs elsewhere in the Quran with the spelling with a yāʾ, with the special vocative 1sg. ending -ā/-ē "my".
quran.com/39/56 Image
Alternatively it could also simply be read as yā-ḥasrat-ī with the normal 1sg. possessive, and both forms are indeed reported as possible reading by ʾAbū Ḥayyān in his monumental al-Baḥr al-Muḥīṭ.

You can check out the manuscript in more detail here:
gallica.bnf.fr/ark:/12148/btv… Image
Read 4 tweets
22 Oct
I've been reading through the long-awaited new book by Shady Nasser "The Second Canonization of the Qurʾān".

There is a lot of marginal transmissions of readings that surprised me, but Šuʿbah reporting he read baʾīs as bayʾas before changing his mind is probably the coolest. 🧵 Image
baʾīs "wretched" is a typical adjectival formation from baʾisa "to be miserable, wretched", whereas bayʾas is rather unusual as an adjective formation, Arabic lexicons also report this adjective as bayʾis which I expect is the more probable reading here too. ImageImage
Ibn Mujāhid brings a report of Šuʿbah saying: "I memorized it on the authority of ʿĀṣim as bayʾ[a/i]sin, in the pattern fayʿ[a/i]l, but then I started to doubt it, so I dropped the transmission of ʿĀṣim and adopted baʾīs on the authority of al-ʾAʿmaš instead. Image
Read 15 tweets
18 Oct
Leafing through al-Zamaḫšarī's al-Mufaṣṣal fī al-Naḥw today, I ran into his chapter on ʾibdāl "replacement", namely his section on the replacement with tāʾ of the consonants wāw, yāʾ, sīn, ṣād and bāʾ. This leads to interesting reflections on Arabic grammatical theory. 🧵
Most of Arabic morpho-phonological theory deals with a concept known as ʾaṣl "root, origin", which is an abstract underlying representation of a word. It has similarities both to a phonemic underlying form, and etymological origin, but is neither exactly.
Rather, it is more of a Platonic ideal representation of an underlying form. The 'source' form from which the surface form (or forms) can be derived through a set of rational rules (ideally). For example, the ʾaṣl of the verb qāla 'he said' is {QaWaLa}.
Read 16 tweets

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