THREAD: Why do English Bible translations often have different poetic stanzas? (inspired by @JennGuenther)
Psalm 1 is divided by the NIV into verses 1-3, 4-5, & 6, but by the ESV into 1-2, 3-4, & 5-6.
Whichever of these is better (or neither), it’s worth knowing that translations usually aren’t following ancient manuscripts.
There are some ancient paragraph divisions in Hebrew manuscripts (look up petucha פְּתוּחָה ‘open’ and stuma סְתוּמָה ‘closed’ paragraphs).
But we still await the #GreatParagraphReform when, some time in the 21st century, modern Bible translations are revised to follow ancient manuscript paragraphs.
In Psalms ancient stanzas may also be indicated by a musical term like selah or by a clear structure, such as when Psalm 119 is made up of 176 verses, in groups of 8, each beginning with successive letters of the Hebrew alphabet.
Now for early manuscripts of Psalm 1:
The most important is the beautiful #AleppoCodex (10th century). The scribe always ensures that verses (= modern verses) begins a new line (lines 1, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8). However, mid-line spaces, don’t correspond with our ideas of poetic breaks.
The principle is that the Hebrew is both right and left justified. Any line with sufficient space also gets a break in the middle.
Unlike modern English translations, there are no extra vertical spaces between lines.
The #LeningradCodex (AD 1008) is the earliest complete copy of the Hebrew Old Testament, but is neither so fair, nor so well made as the #AleppoCodex. Verses and physical line beginnings don’t align.
shows no spaces between lines and is similar to the Greek manuscripts.
So though it’s possible that stanzas you see in an English Bible have some justification in manuscripts, it’s usually best to assume they don’t.
Moreover, even if the original poets thought in terms of stanzas, they probably didn’t mark spaces between them.
In Ugarit, near Israel, in the 13th-12th centuries BC, they wrote poetry with parallelism of poetic lines just as Hebrew Psalms, but didn’t feel the need to start new poetic lines on new physical lines.
We’ve little direct evidence to think that Hebrews normally sang in stanzas.
I write a little bit more about the history of verse divisions (including a time when Psalm 1 was divided into 7, not 6, verses) here: tyndalehouse.com/magazine/read/1
@K_L_Phillips has much to say about how Hebrew manuscripts laid out poetry:
THREAD: The parable of the Lost Sheep, and punctuation.
I've been struggling with Jesus's story of the Lost Sheep (Luke 15:3-6 // Matthew 18:12-14).
In both gospels it's set in the form of a question.
In ESV/THGNT/NA28 Matthew 18:12 has 2 questions & 18:13-14 are statement.
These versions have Luke 15:4 as question & 15:5-7 as statement.
I've been struggling to understand the question 'What man of you, having a hundred sheep and losing one of them does not leave the ninety-nine in the wilderness and go after the lost until he find it? (Luke 15:4)
Do we follow Kenneth Bailey's view that, of course, no flock would be left alone, and that the audience would have understood that the 99 were left with someone else (Finding the Lost, pp. 72-73)?