So I was waiting for @nberpubs to tweet this out last week (which happened Friday pm). Anyway, here is my paper with @msinkinson and Matt Backus. This is the #commonwnership thread for RTE Cereal. 1/11
chrisconlon.github.io/site/bcs_cerea…
The reason we chose cereal (besides the obvious: that's what IO economists do) is that there is a lot of variation in the degree of common ownership across firms and over time. 2/11
For example Kellogg's is 20% owned by a family foundation and is basically indifferent to competitor's profits (weight < 0.2), and should be a strong competitor (turns out it is a high price, high margin firm). Common ownership can be highly asymmetric. (GIS weights KEL ~0.5) 3/
Quaker Oats (part of Pepsi) has lots of small investors and according to our other paper this means they should love competitor profits (turns out they have low prices and margins) 3/11
Post gets bought, sold, spun off, IPO'd a bunch of times and so it's common ownership varies over time. This provides a lot of variation (not necessarily exogenous) in profit weights that we can try to line up with costs/prices. 4/11
Most of lit regresses price on (ownership augmented) concentration indices called MHHI. We get a robust and significant 3% price reduction for each 1000 point MHHI increase, implying that common ownership REDUCES prices. Not time to call #FTC yet, but off to a strong start. 5/11
There are several reasons not to run these kinds of regressions. One is that we take all of that nice cross firm variation and flatten it into a single market-level measure. The other is that when products are differentiated you can get spurious results (in the Appdx) 6/11
When we run our semiparametric test which accounts for product differentiation, we can strongly reject Common Ownership at 95% confidence level (these are t-stats). See the details here: 7/11
Finally, we stick an "internalization" parameter which nests own profit maximization and common ownership. (Personally I dislike this approach - but the audience always wants to see it). Anyway, we find approximately zero internalization of CO effects with a SE of around 13%. 8/
We can reject 20% internalization of common ownership at 90%. With very small amounts of internalization the implied markups become indistinguishable from one another. 9/11
We should point out that FAILING TO REJECT SMALL DEGREES OF INTERNALIZATION IS NOT THE SAME THING AS EVIDENCE IN FAVOR. In fact it is the opposite. In short things could not have gone worse for common ownership in our data 10/11
What does this mean for #commonownership? It means it isn't showing up in the prices of cereal. It doesn't mean CO is wrong or impossible. It does mean we need to examine more markets, and most importantly that we keep collecting necessary ownership data 11/11
The results regarding common ownership are here (separate thread)

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More from @conlon_chris

26 Jan
So I was waiting for @nberpubs to tweet this out last week (which happened Friday pm). Anyway, here is my paper with @msinkinson and Matt Backus, where we test the common ownership hypothesis in RTE Cereal. Methodology Thread for #econtwitter: 1/
chrisconlon.github.io/site/bcs_cerea…
Classic IO question (back to Bresnahan's "rotations of demand") is to look at data on prices and quantitiy and figure out if firms are setting prices consistent w/ Cournot, Bertrand, Perfect Competition, Monopoly, Common Owners. This is harder than it looks to get right 2/
Recent work by @steventberry and @philhaile shows that we can nonparametrically identify conduct using exclusion restrictions (essentially variables that should NOT be correlated with costs - ie: ones that move marginal revenue instead). 3/
onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/abs/10.398…
Read 11 tweets
11 Dec 20
A quick thread about current issues around markups. Many people have seen this figure, but there is still a lot of discussion around what it "means". Estimated markups appear to be rising but we aren't really sure why. 1/
More innocuous explanations include accounting and measurement issues: transforming variable costs into fixed costs (either for tax or technology purposes), selection effects (low margin manufacturers move overseas leaving higher margin firms in US), etc 2/
Also striking is that while markups appear to have risen, in most manufactured goods (particularly "high technology" goods) prices have declined in quality adjusted terms. This story implies that costs are falling more rapidly than prices, again but why? 3/
Read 13 tweets
30 Oct 20
So @nirupama_rao and I are finally in print. We look at why alcohol taxes are often "overshifted" so that $1 of tax leads to >$1 of price increase. Originally we thought PTR > 1 was an artifact of limited data from some weird tax increases in the 90's (Alaska?) ... 1/9
But when we ran the usual 2WFE regression we got PT >1 and for some products closer to 3 [oops!].The typical explanation for overshifting in the literature is "something something market power", but it turns out you need some very strange demand curves to get PTR=3 2/9 Image
If cost shocks are smoothly transmitted into prices then PTR should be constant across products, but it is much higher for products whose prices change. In fact when you plot those PTR against tax changes they seem to suggest price changes are almost exactly $1 or $2 3/9 Image
Read 9 tweets

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