Today, by far the most dominant recitation of the Quran is that of Ḥafṣ (d. 180/796) who transmits from the Kufan reciter ʿĀṣim (d. 127/745). But this dominant position it has today appears to have been a rather recent one.
Thread on looking for Ḥafṣ in early manuscripts 🧵
Contrary to certain pseudoscholarly modern claims, there is absolutely no evidence that Ḥafṣ represents the "reading of the masses" from time immemorial until today. The reading was one of many and it only started to become dominant during the ottoman empire.
But just because it became dominant then, of course does not mean the reading was not transmitted before that. It certainly was, that much is clear even from the literary sources. Already with Ibn Mujāhid (d. 324/936) who canonized the seven, Ḥafṣ is included in transmission.
But can we find manuscript evidence for this reading in Kufic manuscripts before canonization? A way to look for this, is to examine the locations of the mufradāt Ḥafṣ, i.e. readings that among the canonical readers are *exclusive* to Ḥafṣ. This allows rapid identification.
In the following I have restricted my search to manuscripts that can be accessed from corpuscoranicum.de. While there are some other manuscripts, CC is a huge corpus and can be thought of as quite a representative sample (that is also easy to search!).
Q2:67: Ḥafṣ is the only one who read huzuwan; Rest: huzuʾan or huzʾan.
1: Minutoli 296: huz(u)ʾan
2: Wetzstein II 1913: could be consistent with huzuwan.
3: Arabe 325j: red: huzʾan, green: huzuʾan
4: Arabe 346d: might be consistent with huzuwan.
1: Arabe 367(h): red: huzuʾan; green: huzuwan
So one manuscript so far certainly contains Ḥafṣ' reading as a secondarily marked reading. The other two are more ambiguous
Expect spelling: either img 2 or 3.
Wetzstein II 1913 certainly isn't Ḥafṣ on other grounds.
Q3:83: Ḥafṣ yurǧaʿūna; rest: turǧaʿūna or tarǧiʿūna.
1: Wetzstein II 1920: turǧaʿūna (but dotting clearly a later hand)
2: Arabe 336: turǧaʿūna
3: Arabe 337c: turǧaʿūna
4: Arabe 339: turǧaʿūna
1: Arabe 352(h): Red tarǧiʿūna (a non-canonical reading) Blue: yurǧaʿūna (Ḥafṣ' reading!)
So the only time the reading shows up is as a secondary reading (red, is always the main and default reading).
Q3:157: Ḥafṣ yaǧmaʿūna, rest: taǧmaʿūna.
1: Arabe 339: yaǧmaʿūna (Ḥafṣ' reading)
But note that earlier Arabe 339 had the non-Ḥafṣ reading, so the manuscript is not consistent with his canonical reading.
Q4:152: Ḥafṣ yuʾtīhim; Rest: nuʾtīhim
1: Wetzstein II 1915: yuʾtīhim (Ḥafṣ, but dotting is probably a later hand. Red vocalisation on this same page has non-Ḥafṣ readings).
2: Arabe 330f: nuʾtīhimū
3: Arabe 330g: nuʾtīhim
4: Arabe 337a: nuʾtīhim
1: Arabe 339: nuʾtīhim (again confirming it is not Ḥafṣ)
2: Arabe 344b: nuʾtīhim/nuʾtīhumū (dotting likely later)
One manuscript with the Ḥafṣ reading, but whose further system clearly is not Ḥafṣ but something non-canonical.
Q5:107: Ḥafṣ istaḥaqqa; Rest: ustuḥiqqa
1: W.552: ustuḥiqqa
2: Wetzstein II 1913: ustuḥiqqa (indeed not Ḥafṣ as anticipated)
3: Wetzstein II 1915: Red difficult to see, but green = istaḥaqqa so main reading is not Ḥafṣ (see above)
4: Arabe 337c: ustuḥiqqa
So Ḥafṣ reading one time found marks as a secondary reading.
Q7:117 Ḥafṣ: talqafu; Rest: talaqqafu
1: W.552: talaqqafu (word-internal vowels are generally only spelled with geminates or when non-obvious)
2: Wetzstein II 1913: likely talqafu.
3: Saray Medina 1a: talaqqafu
4: Arabe 339: talqafu (?) dots are missing entirely, even rafʿ.
1: Arabe 340f: talqafu. Based on ʾuṣūl, this is not Ḥafṣ, but non-canonical.
2: Arabe 364b: yellow: talaqqafu; what is green? Why is red absent? Red is not Ḥafṣ based on ʾuṣūl.
3: Rampur Raza No. 1: talqafu
Ḥafṣ seems common (or is it defective spelling of talaqqafu?).
We could go on, but this thread is getting long, so I'll leave the rest as an exercise to the reader. But some conclusions: From this sample it is clear that readings that are unique to Ḥafṣ among the canonical readers were not unique.
You find his readings, occasionally, in manuscripts that otherwise clearly do not follow his reading.
His reading, seems to be absent in the early records. Does this mean the reading is made up? Cooked up by Ibn Mujāhid?
Certainly not.
The literary sources give enough reports independent of ibn Mujāhid of the reading of Ḥafṣ. And these reports clearly agree to such a significant degree, that we can confidently say that Ḥafṣ indeed recited something close to how his reading is recited today.
However, the manuscript record does show us that indeed Ḥafṣ did not enjoy the ubiquitous popularity in the centuries directly after his lifetime, that it has come to enjoy today. Manuscripts can be used to find out when he starts gaining popularity. Nobody has done this yes!
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What is it with Classical Arabic/Qurʾānic Arabic textbooks and teaching people incorrect Arabic...
It seems like everyone has decided collectively it's better to lie about the details than actually teach it correctly.
So then you get the joy of unlearning all you learned wrong!
Of course there's also just the downright ignorant stuff about the Arabic script.
Why on earth write on the history of the script at all, if you're not going to reality check even a single thing you're saying! ARGH!
Moreover, a book that purports to be about "Quranic Arabic" but is actually specificlaly about the Arabic of the reading of Ḥafṣ ʿan ʿĀṣim is defensible, but at the very least you should *mention* that it is.
Al-Farrāʾ's maʿānī al-qurʾān is an important early source of a somewhat systematic description of the Kufan readings. Usually what he reports agrees with what we find in the canon. But sometimes he deviates from it, like this discussion for Q29:66. He tells us:
"ʿĀṣim and al-ʾAʿmaš recited wa-l-yatamattaʿū, taking it as a command or rebuke, with no vowel on the Lām, and the people of the Ḥijāz read wa-li-yatamattaʿū with a kasrah (on the lām) taking it to mean kay 'in order to'"
But that's not how ʿĀṣim is said to read!
Indeed at least for the Medinan Nāfiʿ, disagreement is reported for reading wa-li-yatamattaʿū. In canonical transmissions both the Medinans Waṛš from Nāfiʿ and ʾAbū Jaʿfar indeed read wa-li-yatamattaʿū as al-Farrāʾ reports (but Ibn Kaṯīr, the other Hijazi does not).
In the Quranic text, the feminine ending -at is typically spelled with a hāʾ, ـه. However, on occasion it is written with ـت, tāʾ. Its distribution however is highly surprising, and gives insight into the original language of the Quran. Thread 🧵
The spelling with hāʾ is an unusual oddity of the Quranic (and later Classical) orthography, because in the vast majority of the contexts the feminine ending is pronounce as -at-a/i/u(n), that is with a /t/, so why would you not write it with a hāʾ?
The traditional explanation is that in Arabic one is to write a word as it should be written in utterance final position (also called pause/waqf). This does not really work for some other reasons I will not go into here, but let is accept this premise:
"Is the Quran (perfectly) preserved?" is a question I get a lot. I'm never sure how to answer this, or why I am considered the person to ask. This is obviously a question of faith, not something that can be known as an absolute truth. Against better judgment, a small thread.
You might be surprised to learn that the preservation of the Quran is not something that comes up in my work. Nor is it a theme at conferences about the Quran. When talking about the history of the Quran, "preservation" is simply completely irrelevant.
There are all kinds of things you can say about the transmissions and history of the Quranic text, and even sometimes with high probability. But it is not possible to have certainty that how the Quran we have today is syllable-by-syllable exactly how the prophet said it once.
An interesting set of questions which seemed big enough to make a little thread out of it. What can manuscripts tell us in terms of text criticism of the Quran? What can it tell us about the history of the reading traditions? Is it comparable to the bible?
First things first: all manuscripts that we have today (except one), all are from a single text type, the Uthmanic text type. This is a highly standardized text which shows very little variation across different manuscripts in its basis consonantal text.
There was a period of significantly more variation. The lower text of the Sanaa Palimpsest is a testament to that. Also the reports of companion codices like that of Ibn Masʿūd and ʾUbayy seem genuine, and clearly show that there was some more variation before canonization.
Months ago, I promised to do a follow-up thread on this series of comparisons between Nabataean Arabic and Old Hijazi. I said I would discuss the so-called Barth-Ginsberg alternation, this concerns the prefix vowel of verbs.
The medieval Arabic Grammarians tell us that the prefix vowel of verbs may be either /i/ or /a/, which is conditioned by the following vowel. If the vowel is /u, i/ the prefix vowel is /a/, and if the vowel is /a/, the prefix vowel is /i/.
- niʿlamu, nistaʿīnu
- naktubu, nafqidu
This alternation affects the prefix 1sg. ʾa/ʾi-, 1pl. na/ni- and the feminine or 2nd person ta/ti-. The masculine prefix ya- is said to be exempt from it (except for some contexts). Thus:
- ʾaktubu, taktubu, naktubu, yaktubu
- ʾiʿlamu, tiʿlamu, niʿlamu, YAʿlamu